Showing posts with label Solved Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Solved Paper. Show all posts

APPSC Group 1 Prelims Exam 2023 Solved Paper | APPSC Group I Prelim Exam 2023 Answer Key | APPSC Group I Prelims Exam Paper 2023

APPSC Group 1 Prelims Exam 2011 Solved Paper | APPSC Group I Prelim Exam 2011 Answer Key | APPSC Group I Prelims Exam Paper 2011 1. The total Solar eclipse of the 21st Century occurred on: 1) 20th July, 2009 2) 21st July, 2009 3) 22nd July, 2009 4) 23rd July, 2009 2. The following is the outline map of a country. Identify it: 1) Brazil 2) Mexico 3) Iran 4) Canada 3. The following is the outline map of a State in India. Identify it : 1) Orissa 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Karnataka 4. The following is the outline map of a District in Andhra Pradesh. Identify

1) Karimnagar 2) Khammam 3) Guntur 4) Anantapur

5. The outer layer of the earth is known as : 1) Mantle 2) Core 3) Cirrus 4) Crust 6. Which one of the following is the major Ocean of the world? 1) Indian Ocean 2) Atlantic Ocean 3) Pacific Ocean 4) Arctic Ocean 7. Latitudes are imaginary lines drawn parallel to the Equator and run from : 1) North to South 2) East to West 3) Arctic circle to North pole 4) South pole to Tropic of cancer 8. Bandipur National Park/Wildlife sanctuary is in : 1) Assam 2) Gujarat 3) Karnataka 4) Tamil Nadu 9. On 21st March and 21st September the Sun’s rays fall directly on : 1) Exosphere 2) Equator 3) Stratosphere 4) Tropic of Capricorn 10. In Andhra Pradesh among the following lead deposits are found in: 1) Kurnool District 2) Nizamabad District 3) Vijayanagaram District 4) Chittoor District 11. The first Coalition Government formed at the Centre was : 1) Janata Government 2) United Front Government 3) National Democratic Government 4) National Front Government 12. The Article 243-G of the Indian Constitution contains : 1) The financial resources of Panchayat Raj Bodies 2) The functions of the Nyaya Panchayats 3) The powers and functions of Village Panchayats 4) The powers of chairpersons of Zilla Parishads and Mandal Parishads 13. Gandhiji launched his first Satyagraha is South Africa in the year : 1) 1905 2) 1906 3) 1915 4) 1916 14. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act resulted in the : 1) Readjustment of Lok Sabha Constituencies 2) Prohibition of Members of Parliament to hold offices of profit 3) Increase in the number of languages in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution 4) Limiting the size of the cabinet at the centre and state levels to 10 percent of the total strength of the respective lower houses 15. The method which became popular in recent past for employing persons for various jobs in the public as well as private sectors is : 1) Contract appointments 2) Emergency recruitment 3) Outsourcing 4) On-line recruitment 16. Sustainable development exactly means : 1) Improving the conditions of present generation without affecting the needs of future generation 2) Development that percoloates to the bottom level sections in the society 3) Development with social justice 4) Development that lasts for a long time 17. President Rule was imposed in Andhra Pradesh in 1973 because of: 1) Telangana agitation 2) Jai Andhra Movement 3) Political instability 4) Failure of Constitutional Machinery 18. The lowest number of seats won by the Congress Party in the Andhra Pradesh State Assembly Elections held in the year : 1) 1983 2) 1985 3) 1994 4) 1999 19. The name of the Programme recently introduced by Government of Andhra Pradesh to merge all the anti-poverty programmes into a single integrated scheme is : 1) Velugu 2) Indira Prabha 3) Rajiv Gandhi Pragathi Patham 4) Indira Kranthi Pathakam 20. Providing microfinance arrangements to the poor women for extension of credit along with thrift-type of saving schemes is through : 1) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana 2) Self-Help Groups 3) National Rural Employment Programme 4) Indira Prabha 21. Minimum support prices for food crops to the Union Government is recommended by : 1) Agricultural Commission 2) Ministry of Agriculture 3) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices 4) Food Corporation of India 22. The duration of medium term agricultural credit is : 1) 15 months to 5 years 2) 5 years to 10 years 3) less than 3 months 4) 3 months to 6 months 23. Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation lies between : 1) –1 to +1 2) –1 to 0 3) 0 to 1 4) 1 to 100 24. Saving is : 1) the major determinant of growth 2) the only determinant of growth 3) one of the determinants of growth 4) not concerned with growth 25. Which of the following descriptions does not explain VAT as per its conceptualisation? 1) It will diminish revenue buoyancy 2) It is a harmonised commodity taxation regime 3) Its effects are non-cascading 4) It is a self-enforcing system 26. Heavy Sector Strategy is associated with the name of : 1) Brahmananda 2) Mahalanobis 3) Bhagwati 4) Chakravarti 27. A stable macroeconomy contributes to global integration through the : 1) Ability to withstand shocks 2) Use of prices as signals 3) High returns from education 4) Creation of financial discipline 28. One of the key elements of India’s market based developmental strategy is : 1) No Government intervention 2) Investment in physical capital 3) Integration with the global economy 4) A rapidly changing macroeconomy 29. The Comptroller and Auditor General submits his Annual Report regarding the Centre to : 1) The Prime Minister 2) The President 3) The Parliament 4) The Chairman of the Planning Commission 30. The Regional Rural Bank is a bank sponsored by : 1) Reserve Bank of India 2) Ministry of Finance 3) NABARD 4) Scheduled Commercial Bank 31. Alfred Noble is associated with the invention of : 1) Cosmic rays 2) Dynamite 3) Dynamo 4) Penicillin 32. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is : 1) 365 days 2) 30 days 3) 1 day 4) 12 hours 33. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of : 1) Calcium sulphate 2) Calcium bicarbonate 3) Sodium bicarbonate 4) Magnesium bicarbonate 34. The Greenhouse effect deals with : 1) Cooling of lower atmosphere 2) Warming of upper atmosphere 3) Cooling of upper atmosphere 4) Warming of lower atmosphere 35. Pace-maker is related to : 1) heart 2) lung 3) liver 4) kidney 36. Inertia is the property of : 1) force 2) strength 3) mass 4) volume 37. Tea will cool most easily in : 1) glass cup 2) metal cup 3) clay cup 4) porcelain cup 38. When there is no external force acts on a system of particles, the velocity of centre of mass of the system will be : 1) increased 2) decreased 3) zero 4) constant 39. If the momentum of a body is increased by 100%, th kinetic energy will be increased by : 1) 300% 2) 200% 3) 100% 4) 50% 40. The colour given by excess Lithium in Lithium Chloride solid is : 1) Violet 2) Green 3) Pink 4) Yellow 41. Sodium benzoate is used as a : 1) flavouring agent 2) preservative 3) colouring agent 4) antacid 42. The element used in Integrated circuits of computers is : 1) Iron 2) Magnesium 3) Aluminium 4) Silicon 43. Brass is an alloy of : 1) Copper and Aluminium 2) Copper and Tin 3) Copper and Zinc 4) Copper and Nickel 44. Blood is a : 1) Solution 2) Colloid 3) Emulsion 4) Gel 45. Mosquito repellents contain mainly : 1) calcium dihydrogen phosphate 2) potassium hydrogen phosphate 3) sodium hydrogen sulphate 4) ammonium bicarbonate 46. The economically useful part in Ginger is : 1) Bulb 2) Fruit 3) Rhizome 4) Root 47. The edible part of coffee seed is : 1) Tapetum 2) Mace 3) Caruncle 4) Perisperm 48. Lutein is a/an : 1) Blue coloured pigment 2) Yellow coloured pigment 3) Brown coloured pigment 4) Orange coloured pigment 49. In the area of Biotechnology enzyme that is produced commercially both from plants and microbes is : 1) Papain 2) Trypsin 3) Protease 4) Amylase 50. Plants that grow in seashores are called as : 1) Halophytes 2) Hydrophytes 3) Xerophytes 4) Psammophytes 51. The study of animal behaviour is called as : 1) Etymology 2) Ethology 3) Ecology 4) Euphenics 52. Vitamin related with production of antibodies is : 1) B6 2) B12 3) B1 4) B2 53. Serological tests have enormous value in the process of : 1) Classification 2) Identification 3) Diversity 4) Code of nomenclature 54. Pearls are the products from : 1) Annelids 2) Arthropods 3) Poriferans 4) Molluscs 55. Siphoning type of mouth parts are present in : 1) Mosquito 2) Cockroach 3) Butterfly 4) Housefly 56. The space shuttle launched by NASA in November, 2009 was : 1) Atlantis 2) Challenger 3) Columbia 4) Discovery 57. The United Nations Climate Change Conference, 2009 was concluded in : 1) Poland 2) Denmark 3) China 4) Japan 58. Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following has been included in the UNESCO’s Memory of World Register? 1) Mahabharata 2) Ramayana 3) Rigveda 4) Abhidhamma Pitaka 59. In February, 2009, the first model e-COurt in India was launched by the : 1) High Court of Gujarat 2) High Court of Tamil Nadu 3) High Court of Himachal Pradesh 4) High Court of Andhra Pradesh 60. Global Campaign ’350′ was observed as an International Day for Climate Action on : 1) 25th October, 2009 2) 30th October, 2009 3) 14th October, 2009 4) 24th October, 2009 61. The Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation Model of Economic Development assigns a key role to the : 1) Foreign Direct Investment 2) Information Technology 3) Private Sector 4) Public-Private partnership 62. The bulk of the business relating to the Indian Stock Market is handled by the : 1) Reserve Bank of India 2) Bombay Stock Exchange 3) National Stock Exchange 4) International Stock Exchange 63. Achievement of the growth rate of 9.5% is/was the target of : 1) Ministry of Finance 2) Eleventh Five Year Plan 3) Tenth Five Year Plan 4) Planning Commission 64. The recent statement made by the Indian Prime Minister that the Higher Education in India can be developed through adopting approach of : 1) Privatisation 2) Involvement of Foreign Providers 3) Earmaking 60% of the national income for higher education 4) Public-Private partnership 65. The crisis of which impelled the Central Government to introduce far reaching reforms in the country’s economy in 1990-1991 was : 1) Balance of payments crisis 2) Crisis in Public Sector 3) Financial crisis 4) Foreign exchange 66. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the woman related to the man? 1) Sister 2) Niece 3) Aunt 4) Mother 67. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following? 1) Rashi 2) Monika 3) Abha 4) Sulekha 68. Which two months in a year have the same calendar? 1) April, June 2) January, December 3) April, July 4) June, October 69. Rahul ranks tenth from the top and thirty-fourth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class? 1) 45 2) 43 3) 46 4) 44 70. Arrange the following items from general to particular : a) Animal b) Feline c) Leopard d) Mammal e) Vertebrate f) Cat 1) adcbef 2) acedbf 3) abcdef 4) aedbcf 71. In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English while 3 of them read none of these two. How many of them read both French and English? 1) 0 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5 72. Find the missing character from among the alternatives 1) 9 2) 12 3) 18 4) 6 73. What is always in worry? 1) Non-Cooperation 2) Unrest 3) Poignancy 4) Difficulty 74. Identify the odd one in the following : 1) Hinduism 2) Christianity 3) Zoroastrianism 4) Islam 75. What does the following sign indicate? 1) Hospital 2) First Aid 3) Cross Road 4) No Parking 76. If these letters RIDANI DINAGM rearranged, it would be the name of a : 1) Political leader 2) President 3) Governor 4) Actor 77. If KNOWLEDGE is coded as ’256535475′ the ‘GENERAL’ is coded as : 1) 7545993 2) 7969393 3) 7555912 4) 7555913 78. ‘Gas’ is to ‘Pipe’ as ‘Electricity’ is to : 1) Current 2) Switch 3) Wire 4) Regulator 79. Mention the sport/game with which the term Mashie is most closely associated : 1) High Jump 2) Golf 3) Volleyball 4) Kho-Kho 80. Mention the term with which the game Chess is closely associated: 1) Castle 2) Home Run 3) Mashie 4) Raider 81. Identify the name of the creator of the popular fictional character Lord Voldemort : 1) Eoin Coulfer 2) J.K. Rowling 3) Salman Rushdie 4) Edgar Rice Burroughs 82. Identify the name of the popular fictional character created by Edgar Rice Burroughs : 1) Feluda 2) Hercule Poirot 3) Tarzan 4) Gandalf 83. The slogan of State Bank of India is : 1) With you all the way 2) A tradition of trust 3) Trusted family Bank 4) Care at every stage of life 84. Identify the following Emblem : 1) Union Public Service Commission 2) Government of Andhra Pradesh 3) University Grants Commission 4) National Council of Educational Research and Training 85. The following Emblem indicates : 1) Indian Bank 2) Canara Bank 3) Syndicate Bank 4) Andhra Bank 87. ‘Body’ includes ‘limb’ as ‘tree’ includes : 1) Seed 2) Wood 3) Branch 4) Soil 88. A train is travelling at a speed of 120 km per hour. How long will it take to travel 10 kms? 1) 5 minutes 2) 10 minutes 3) 10 minutes 4) 15 minutes 89. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 36 sums in all, how many did he solve correctly? 1) 18 2) 24 3) 9 4) 12 90. Rearrange the letters SESTA to make meaningful word : 1) Sets 2) Asset 3) Tests 4) Tseas 91. Who known as the Plato of the Jat tribe? 1) Churaman 2) Raja Ram 3) Surajmal 4) Badan Singh 92. After Bengal, the English secured the rights of duty free trade in the dominions of : 1) Nawab of Awadh 2) The Nizam of Hyderabad 3) Raja of Banaras 4) The Jats of Bharatpur 93. ‘Madhura Vijayam’ was composed by : 1) Molla 2) Gangadevi 3) Ramabhadramba 4) Madhuravani 94. The Vernacular Press Act was passed during the tenure of : 1) Warren Hastings 2) Bentinck 3) Lytton 4) Curzon 95. The founder of the Servants of India Society was : 1) Dadabhai Naoroji 2) Gopalkrishna Gokhale 3) M.G. Ranade 4) Balgangadhar Tilak 96. Who was popularly called as Andhra Shivaji? 1) Duggirala Gopala Krishnaiah 2) Kanneganti Hanumanthu 3) Konda Venkatappaiah 4) P. Veerayya Chowdary 97. The first Indian King who abdicated his throne, was : 1) Chandragupta I 2) Asoka 3) Chandragupta Maurya 4) Samudragupta 98. The founder of Nalanda University was : 1) Kumaragupta 2) Samudragupta 3) Asoka 4) Nalanda 99. Who defeated Harsha and assumed the title ‘Parameshwar’? 1) Pulakesin I 2) Pulakesin II 3) Mahendravarman I 4) Mahendravarman II 100.Jahangir’s Court was visited by the English trader, namely : 1) Daniel 2) Christofer 3) Sir William John 4) Sir Thomas Roe 101.What was the childhood name of Nur Jahan? 1) Bahu Begam 2) Bharagal Nisha 3) Maharul Nisa 4) Mumtaj 102.Which Governor-General is associated with the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’? 1) Cornwallis 2) Ripon 3) Curzon 4) Dalhousie 103. When was the Hyderabad State Congress formed? 1) 1938 2) 1935 3) 1932 4) 1929 104. The Direct Action Day observed by the Muslim League was on : 1) August 12, 1946 2) August 15, 1946 3) August 16, 1946 4) August 15, 1947 105. The ‘Kurnool Circular’ was issued by the State Congress leaders during : 1) Vandemataram Movement 2) Quit India Movement 3) Salt Satyagraha 4) Non-Cooperation Movement 106. On the Western end of Lake Ontario the chief iron and steel producer is : 1) Hamilton 2) Sydney 3) Trenton 4) Regina 107.The Tweed Valley is located in : 1) Bradford 2) Leeds 3) Scotland 4) Huddersfield 108.The highest peak in Australia is : 1) Mt. Ossa 2) Mt. Woodroppe 3) Mt. Bruce 4) Mt. Kosciuska 109. The largest bauxite field of Australia is located at : 1) Grove 2) Weipa 3) Orange 4) Victoria 110. Nikopol deposits of Ukraine consists of : 1) Manganese 2) Chromite 3) Copper 4) Nickel 111.The region between Kunlun mountains and the Alyn Tagh is called: 1) Mongolian plateau 2) Dzungarian Basin 3) Tsaidam Basin 4) Tarim Basin 112.The chief centre for tin smelting in South-east Asia is : 1) Java 2) Sumatra 3) Myanmar 4) Singapore 113.The name of highest mountain in Africa is : 1) Mt. Cameroon 2) Mt. Kilimanjaro 3) Mt. Elgon 4) Mt. Kenya 114. In India, the annual rainfall variability is above 60% in the State of : 1) Gujarat 2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) Assam 4) Manipur 115.In India among the given states below, in which state Manganese ore production is high? 1) Maharashtra 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Orissa 4) Karnataka 116. In Andhra Pradesh, the Kesoram Cements is located in the district of : 1) Karimnagar 2) Vijayanagaram 3) Ranga Reddy 4) Kadapa 117.Among the given basins in India, in which basin the groundwater potential is found high? 1) Narmada 2) Krishna 3) Godavari 4) Cauvery 118.Maihan Dam has been constructed across the River : 1) Bokaro 2) Barakar 3) Damodar 4) Konar 119.Nicolaus Copernicus was the 16th Century : 1) Astronomer 2) Mathematician 3) Navigator 4) Philosopher 120.Annapurna, one of the highest mountains in the World is in : 1) India 2) Tibet 3) Bhutan 4) Nepal 121. The Indian girl, who got a rare honour to address World leaders at the United Nations Summit on Climate Change was : 1) Anjana Sharma 2) Yugratna Srivastava 3) Soumya Bhattacharjee 4) Pratiksha Chakravarthy 122.Chandrayan II is designed jointly by India and : 1) Japan 2) Germany 3) Russia 4) France 123.Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is : 1) S.H. Kapadia 2) A.R. Dave 3) D.S.R. Varma 4) K.G. Balakrishnan 124.India launched the Census, 2011 on : 1) 1st January, 2010 2) 1st February, 2010 3) 1st March, 2010 4) 1st April, 2010 125.The General Elections in Great Britain were held on : 1) 5th May, 2010 2) 6th May, 2010 3) 7th May, 2010 4) 8th May, 2010 126.The ICC World Women’s Twenty-20, Champion 2010 is : 1) India 2) Sri Lanka 3) Australia 4) New Zealand 127. Millennium’s longest Annular Solar eclipse occurred on : 1) 15th January, 2010 2) 16th January, 2010 3) 17th January, 2010 4) 18th January, 2010 128.Agni-I ballistic missile which was test-fired in March, 2010 has a range of : 1) 300 km 2) 500 km 3) 700 km 4) 900 km 129.Viswanathan Anand won the FIDE World Chess Championship by defeating : 1) Boiko Borisov 2) Veselin Topalov 3) Dinara Safina 4) Ana Ivanovic 130.Shyam Saran of Kalpa village of Kinnaur district was honoured by Navin Chavla, Chief Election Commissioner of India in Himachal Pradesh on 12th June, 2010 as he happened to be : 1) One of the senior citizens of India 2) One of the voters casting his vote in all the elections 3) One of the first few voters of Pre-independent India 4) One of the first few voters of Independent India 131.Swayamsidha Scheme launched in the year 2002 was dedicated to: 1) Women’s Literacy 2) Women’s Health 3) Women’s Empowerment 40 Women’s Welfare 132.The winner of the Gold Medal at the Second World Sand Sculpture Championship is : 1) Sudarsan Pattnaik 2) Someswar Pathak 3) Goutham Prasad 4) Harischandra Mukharjee 133.The Nobel Prize in Literature for 2009 is awarded to : 1) Olivers Williamson 2) Herta Mueller 3) Elinor Ostrom 4) Thomas Steitz 134.The winner of the Spelling Bee Prize, 2010 in Washington held on 4th June 2010 is : 1) Sameer Mishra 2) Kavya Shivashankar 3) Anamika Veeramani 4) Shantanu Srivastav 135.The Sakshara Bharat Scheme introduced by Government of India will be in operation upto :

1) March, 2011 2) March, 2012 3) March, 2015 4) March, 2020 136.The first set of Identify Numbers as per the Unique Identification Authority of India will be issued in : 1) February, 2011 2) July, 2011 3) January, 2012 4) June, 2012 137.The opening match of the FIFA 2010 World Cup was played between : 1) South Africa and Mexico 2) South Africa and Nigeria 3) South Africa and America 4) South Africa and England 138.Earth Hour is a global event organised by : 1) Bureau of Energy Efficiency 2) United Nations 3) European Union 4) World Wide Fund for Nature/World Wildlife Fund 139.The 15th Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement was held in : 1) Cuba 2) Egypt 3) Sri Lanka 4) India 140.Smile Pinki, a documentary film won the : 1) Oscar award 2) Nobel award 3) Dada Saheb Phalke award 4) Bhatnagar award 141.In which of the following subjects were the Vedic Aryans not preficient? 1) Astronomy 2) Mathematics 3) Chemistry 4) Medicine 142.Which of the Pallava rulers is known as ‘Vichitrachitta’? 1) Mahendravarman 2) Parameswaravarman 3) Narasimhavarman I 4) Narasimhavarman II 143.Jayapa Senani composed ‘Nrittaratnavali’ during the reign of : 1) Rudradeva 2) Ganapatideva 3) Rudramadevi 4) Pratapa Rudra 144.Harappan people had close external contact with : 1) Iran 2) Egypt 3) Bahrain 4) Mesopotamia 145.Which Vedic text first refers to moneylending? 1) Atharvaveda 2) Yajurveda 3) Satapatha Brahmana 4) Gopatha Brahmana 146.In the Chola Kingdom, a very large village administered as a single unit was called : 1) Kurram 2) Kottam 3) Nadu 4) Taniyur 147.The state-pormoted canal irrigation system was initiated by : 1) Alauddin Khalji 2) Ghyasuddin Tughlaq 3) Firuz Tughlaq 4) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq 148.The Vijayanagar King who totally withdrew the marriage tax was: 1) Krishnadevaraya 2) Devaraya II 3) Achyutaraya 4) Sadasivaraya 149.The style of vocal Hindustani music which was non-Islamic in character was : 1) Taraka 2) Khayal 3) Gawwalis 4) Dhrupad 150.At the time of his coronation at Kalanaur the age of Akbar was : 1) Fifteen 2) Fourteen 3) Twenty 4) Eighteen

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RPSC RJS Exam 2023 Answer Key/Solution/Cut Off Marks/Solved Paper | RPSC RJS Exam December 2022 Answers

RPSC RJS Exam 2023 Answer Key / Solution / Cut Off Marks / Solved Paper | RPSC RJS Exam December 2023 Answers 

 Rajasthan Public Service Commission Ajmer Conducted RJS Competitive Exam 2011 on 21-12-2011 Candidates are advised to Discuss Their Answers and Cut off Marks Below Comment Box Rajasthan Judicial Service Exam date was 21 December 2011 Now Answer Will be Uploaded Quickly on This Website Our Experts are Solving the Question Paper for You
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Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam Sample Questions | Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Sample Question Papers | Bank Probationary Officers Solved

Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam Sample Questions | Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Sample Question Papers | Bank Probationary Officers Solved Paper

Model Paper For Different Bank Probationary Officers Reasoning Ability Test
Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relati onship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obt ains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the four th term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five term s given below. Find out this term.
1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to … ?
(A) ADFH
(B) CFHJ
(C) CDEF
(D) CEGI
Ans : (B)
2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to … ?
(A) FGKJ
(B) HILM
(C) HIKJ
(D) HIML
Ans : (B)
3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to … ?
(A) CEXV
(B) CXFU
(C) EVFU
(D) EWCX
Ans : (B)
4. ‘CIRCLE’ is related to ‘RICELC’ in the same way as ‘SQUARE’ is related
to—
(A) UQSERA
(B) QUSERA
(C) UQSAER
(D) QSUERA
Ans : (A)
5. ‘JKLM’ is related to ‘XYZA’ in the same way as ‘NOPQ’ is related to—
(A) RSTU
(B) YZAB
(C) DEFG
(D) BCDE
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative r esponses. Select the correct response.
6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?
(A) Nose
(B) Blood
(C) Urine
(D) Lung
Ans : (D)
7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother?
(A) Child
(B) Boy
(C) Adult
(D) Nephew
Ans : (D)
8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ?
(A) Nylon
(B) Rayon
(C) Silk
(D) Terylene
Ans : (C)
9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure?
(A) Direct
(B) Order
(C) Initiate
(D) Fascinate
Ans : (D)
10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone?
(A) Accident
(B) Rain
(C) Earthquake
(D) Damage
Ans : (C)
11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Blacksmith
(C) Teacher
(D) Lawyer
Ans : (B)
12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ?
(A) Obstruction
(B) Drain
(C) Pipe
(D) Tap
Ans : (A)
13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue?
(A) Sky
(B) Dark
(C) Green
(D) Bright
Ans : (C)
14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ?
(A) Pleasant
(B) Feel
(C) Anxiety
(D) Satisfy
Ans : (C)
15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ?
(A) Light
(B) Metre
(C) Hour
(D) Watt
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two qu estions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill u p the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alterna tive.
16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ?
(A) Disguise, Modest
(B) Capacity, Woman
(C) Man, Feminine
(D) Brave, Mrs.
Ans : (C)
17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ?
(A) Blue, Swim
(B) Bird, Water
(C) Open, Hook
(D) Tree, Colour
Ans : (B)
18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ?
(A) Brother, Brought-up
(B) Father, Aunt
(C) Cousin, Beautiful
(D) Aunt, Father
Ans : (D)
19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?
(A) Columbo, India
(B) Kathmandu, Capital
(C) India, Paris
(D) Island, Harbour
Ans : (D)
20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ?
(A) White, Hunt
(B) Elephant, Horn
(C) Huge, Rare
(D) Costly, Scarce
Ans : (B)
Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of questio
n marks.
21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ?
(A) Furniture, Tea
(B) Student, Horse
(C) Wood, Hot
(D) Chair, Plate
Ans : (D)
22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ?
(A) Sweet, Sour
(B) Energy, Machine
(C) Sugarcane, Milk
(D) White, Sweet
Ans : (C)
23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?
(A) Moon, Rainbow
(B) Light, Cloud
(C) Sky, Wet
(D) Day, Night
Ans : (B)
24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ?
(A) Skull, Tongue
(B) Hat, Lips
(C) Hair, Voice
(D) Turban, Saliva
Ans : (A)
25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ?
(A) Hand, Know
(B) Experience, Feeling
(C) Skin, Hear
(D) Hair, Dirt
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each gr oup of individuals which are common to each member of that group.
Column I Column II
FHIJ TW
IJK PT
IJLM SUW
GHIKM RV
GHI QRV
FGI PR
HIJ QTW
IJL QSUW
GIJ PQS
26. Which individual has all the above characteristics?
(A) J
(B) I
(C) H
(D) M
Ans : (B)
27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?
(A) P, Q, T
(B) P, Q, R, S
(C) Q, R, S, T
(D) U, V, T
Ans : (A)
28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M?
(A) S
(B) B
(C) Q
(D) R
Ans : (C)
29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K?
(A) P, Q
(B) Q, W
(C) Q, R
(D) R, W
Ans : (B)
30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both?
(A) Q
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are giv en with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer.
31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Chennai
(D) Sholapur
Ans : (C)
32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?
(A) Blush
(B) Raven
(C) Ash
(D) Rust
Ans : (C)
33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ?
(A) Knife
(B) Spoon
(C) Fork
(D) Bowl
Ans : (D)
34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?
(A) Ignore
(B) Pardon
(C) Liberate
(D) Quit
Ans : (C)
35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?
(A) Bed
(B) Violet
(C) Plant
(D) Red
Ans : (C)
Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to
40.
36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ?
(A) Draft
(B) Cow
(C) Earth
(D) Dry
Ans : (D)
37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?
(A) Baby
(B) Father-in-law
(C) Son
(D) Son-in-law
Ans : (C)
38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?
(A) Tree
(B) Purple
(C) Grass
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)
39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?
(A) Heart
(B) Intestines
(C) Testis
(D) Neck
Ans : (A)
40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?
(A) Window
(B) Door
(C) Block
(D) Iron
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are gi ven. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternativ e is your answer.
41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck
(A) Speed
(B) Rooms
(C) Wheels
(D) Transport
Ans : (D)
42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer
(A) Meat eater
(B) Jungles
(C) Mammals
(D) Cruel
Ans : (C)
43. Sword, Gun, Pistol
(A) Arms
(B) Constable
(C) Bullet
(D) War
Ans : (A)
44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred
(A) Destruction
(B) Envy
(C) Human Characteristics
(D) Quality
Ans : (C)
45. Novel, Epic, Drama
(A) Subject
(B) Literature
(C) Poetry
(D) Knowledge
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are g iven. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.
46. Wheat, Barley, Rice
(A) Food
(B) Gram
(C) Cereal
(D) Agriculture
Ans : (C)
47. Coal, Iron, Mica
(A) Rock
(B) Minerals
(C) Gold
(D) Earth
Ans : (B)
48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability
(A) Quality
(B) Dependability
(C) Charter
(D) Nicety
Ans : (A)
49. Cap, Coat, Trousers
(A) Smart
(B) Shirt
(C) Dress
(D) Tailor
Ans : (C)
50. Stool, Table, Chair
(A) Bench
(B) Furniture
(C) Carpet
(D) Office
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two wo rds and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.
51. Resignation : Office ::
(A) Competition : Game
(B) Illness : Hospital
(C) Abdication : Throne
(D) Moisture : Rain
(E) Appointment : Interview
Ans : (C)
52. Bunch : Key ::
(A) Hound : Pack
(B) Team : Competition
(C) Beehive : Bee
(D) Examination : Subject
(E) Bouquet : Flower
Ans : (E)
53. Profit : Loss ::
(A) Success : Failure
(B) Rupee : Paisa
(C) Whole : Part
(D) Multiplication : Addition
(E) Adult : Child
Ans : (A)
54. Sapling : Tree ::
(A) Horse : Mare
(B) Student: Teacher
(C) Bud : Flower
(D) Tree : Furniture
(E) River : Brook
Ans : (C)
55. Supervisor : Worker ::
(A) Junior : Senior
(B) Superior : Inferior
(C) Elder : Younger
(D) Debtor : Creditor
(E) Officer : Clerk
Ans : (E)
56. Malaria : Mosquito ::
(A) Poison : Death
(B) Rat : Plague
(C) Epidemic : Bacteria
(D) Cholera : Water
(E) Medicine : Disease
Ans : (D)
57. Paisa : Rupee ::
(A) Kilogram : Quintal
(B) Metre : Centimetre
(C) Coin : Money
(D) Weight : Ton
(E) Rupee : Wealth
Ans : (A)
58. Poet : Verse ::
(A) Prose : Novelist
(B) Author : Book
(C) Novel : Prose
(D) Publication : Editor
(E) Summary : Paraphrase
Ans : (B)
59. Water : Thirst ::
(A) Food : Hunger
(B) Sun : Energy
(C) Appetite : Meal
(D) Ice-cream : Cold
(E) Poison : Death
Ans : (A)
60. Pulp : Paper ::
(A) Wood : Table
(B) Cloth : Shirt
(C) Yarn : Fabric
(D) Iron : Steel
(E) Wood : Sawdust
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two wo rds and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.
61. Trees and Forest
(A) Ocean (B) Page
(C) Books (D) Study
(E) Library (F) Ship
(G) Boys (H) Classes
Ans : (C, E)
62. Constable and Police
(A) Clerk (B) Hospital
(C) Medicine (D) Mother
(E) Girl (F) Doctor
(G) File (H) House
Ans : (B, F)
63. Brother-in-law and Sister
(A) I (B) Youth
(C) Female-companion (D) Wife
(E) My (F) Beautiful Woman
(G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law
Ans : (B, G)
64. Cold and Hot
(A) January (B) Monday
(C) Year (D) June
(E) March (F) Thursday
(G) Month (H) August
Ans : (A, D)
65. High and Low
(A) Far (B) Rent
(C) Next (D) Near
(E) Distance (F) Fair
(G) Last (H) Clean
Ans : (A, D)
66. Unsuccess and Laziness
(A) Study (B) Success
(C) Day (D) School
(E) Labour (F) Lazy
(G) Game (H) Honesty
Ans : (E, B)
67. Car and Garage
(A) Horse (B) Grass
(C) Bird (D) Water
(E) Man (F) Stable
(G) Animal (H) Hive
Ans : (A, F)
68. Hand and Fingers
(A) Foot (B) Eyes
(C) Hat (D) Teeth
(E) Head (F) Stomach
(G) Nose (H) Hair
Ans : (E, H)
69. Oxygen and Man
(A) Petrol (B) Stool
(C) Carpenter (D) Sky
(E) Driver (F) Wood
(G) Water (H) Fish
Ans : (G, H)
70. Neat and Clean
(A) Dirty (B) Tidy
(C) Route (D) White
(E) Wise (F) Ravi
(G) Foul (H) Beauty
Ans : (A, G)
Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of t hree words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below e ach question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups o f that pair.
Column I
(A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato
(B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit
(C) Mother, Sister, Female
(D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker
(E) Stool, Furniture, Table
Column II
(P) Apple, Banana, Fruit
(Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals
(R) Doctor, Painter, Father
(S) Cow, Mammal, Animal
(I) Soldier, Army, Civilian
71. (A) BP
(B) AQ
(C) CR
(D) EP
Ans : (D)
72. (A) BR
(B) AT
(C) CS
(D) DP
Ans : (C)
73. (A) DR
(B) BR
(C) ET
(D) CS
Ans : (A)
74. (A) BS
(B) AT
(C) AQ
(D) DQ
Ans : (B)
75. (A) CR
(B) EQ
(C) BQ
(D) DS
Ans : (B)
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST BANK PO REASONING, Model Paper For Different Bank Probationary Office rs Exam, Reasoning Test : Bank PO, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 comments
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST : BANK PO
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST
BANK PO , MBA , RRB , LIC ASSISTANT
1. Piyush is 18th from either end of a row of boys. How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is relat
ed to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
3. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
4. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
5. Select the correct option in place of the question mark—
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
6. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
7. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Raman ranked 17th fr om the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Raman, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
8. If ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘YLZG’ in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be w ritten in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
9. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be
written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
10. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801 , then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
11. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
12. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which dire ction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
13. One morning after sunrise Vikas and Shanu were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikas’s shadow fell exactly towards left-h and side. Which direction Shanu was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
14. Neelam is taller than Paumpi but not as tall as Mihir. Roma is taller th an Namarata but not as tall as Paumpi. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Mihir
(B) Paumpi
(C) Namarata
(D) Neelam
15. In an examination Raja got more marks than Mohit but not as many as M inal. Minal got more marks than Suresh and Rupali. Suresh got less marks than Mohit but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second i n the descending order of marks ?
(A) Minal
(B) Rupali
(C) Raja
(D) None of these
16. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Raja said “She has no sister or daug hter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother’’. How is the girl in the photograph related with Raja’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand Daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
17. If Suyash’s father is Babloo’s father’s only son and Babloo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Suyash and Babloo ?
(A) Uncle–Nephew
(B) Father–Daughter
(C) Father–Son
(D) Grandfather–Grandson
18. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekda y. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on lea ve that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
19. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learn t that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m. , what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
20. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those w ho passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition an d 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
21. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they inte rchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s posi tion from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
22. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be
coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
23. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE wil
l be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
24. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to…
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
25. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (C) As ‘Medicine’ is used by a ‘Patient’ in the same way ‘Education’ is u
sed by a ‘Student’.
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. (C)
6. (B)
7. (B)
8. (C)
9. (B)
10. (A)
11. (C)
12. (A)
13. (D)
14. (A) Mihir > Neelam > Paumpi > Roma > Namrata
= The tallest is Mihir.
15. (C) Minal > Raja > Mohit > Suresh > Rupali
16. (B) The girl in the photograph is the daughter of Raja’s sister. Hence the
girl is grand daughter of Raja’s mother.
17. (C) Suyash is the son of Babloo.
18. (C) The desk officer received the application on Friday. Hence the seni
or clerk received it on Thursday and the inward clerk received the applicat
ion on Wednesday.
19. (D) The time for the next flight
= 10·45 – 0·25 + 5·00
= 15·20 = 3 : 20 p.m.
20. (D) Number of boys in the class
= (16 + 29 – 1) + 6 + 5
= 55
21. (A)
22. (D)
23. (D)
24. (B) As ‘Bird’ flies in ‘Air’ similarly ‘Fish’ swims in ‘Water’.
25. (D) As ‘Pencil’ is used to ‘Write’ similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Attack’.
Labels: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST BANK PO REASONING,
MBA GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, MBA GENERAL INTELLIGENCE SO
LVED QUESTIONS, RRB GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, SBI BANK CL
ERK REASONING 0 comments
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED PAPER
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Wednesday, June 11, 2008 at 4:01 AM
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED PAPER
(HELD ON 06-01-2008)
Reasoning Ability
121. Among M, T, R and P, M is older than only P. T is older than R. Who
among them is the oldest ?
(A) T (B) R
(C) T or R (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
122. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a grou
p. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Hill (B) Valley
(C) Dam (D) River
(E) Mountain
123. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ES
RO using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
124. If ‘P’ denotes ‘+’; ‘R’ denotes ‘¸’, ‘T’ denotes ‘–’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘X
’, then—
40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16 = ?
(A) 50 (B) 46
(C) 30 (D) 70
(E) None of these
125. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4
(A) 8 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 2
(E) None of these
126. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSTABLE each
of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English a
lphabet ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
127. In a certain code BOARD is written as 54#12 and MORE is written as
941$. How is DREAM written in that code ?
(A) 21$#9 (B) 2$1#9
(C) 51$#9 (D) 25$#9
(E) None of these
128. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a grou
p. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 50 (B) 65
(C) 170 (D) 255
(E) 290
129. How many such digits are there in the number 5231698 each of which is
as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearr
anged in ascending order ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
130. In a certain code CREAM is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written
in that code?
(A) EBFAQ (B) EBDAQ
(C) BEDQA (D) BEFQA
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 131–135) In each of the questions below are given three sta
tements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance f
rom commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which o
f the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disreg
arding commonly known facts.
131. Statements # Some flowers are bins. Some bins are handles. All handles
are sticks.
Conclusions # I. Some sticks are bins.
II. Some handles are flowers.
III. Some sticks are flowers.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and II follows
(D) Only I and III follows
(E) None of these
132. Statements # Some towers are windows. All windows are houses. Some
houses are temples.
Conclusions # I. Some towers are temples.
II. Some houses are towers.
III. Some temples are windows.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follows
(E) None of these
133. Statements # Some walls are doors. Some doors are cots. Some cots are
chairs.
Conclusions # I. Some chairs are doors.
II. Some cots are walls.
III. No chair is door.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
134. Statements # All trees are gardens. All gardens are stones. All stones ar
e fences.
Conclusions # I. Some fences are gardens.
II. All gardens are fences.
III. Some stones are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
135. Statements # All books are leaves. Some leaves are jungles. No jungle i
s box.
Conclusions # I. Some jungles are books.
II. No book is box.
III. Some leaves are boxes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and III follow
Directions—(Q. 136–140) Study the follo-wing arrangement carefully and

answer the questions given below—
7 R E T 4 A 9 % D F 1 U # B @ 8 H I © W M H 3 2 V $ 5 N P 6 Q
136. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each o
f which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed
by a number ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
137. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of wh
ich is imme-diately preceded by a letter but not imme-diately followed by
a symbol ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
138. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of wh
ich is immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
139. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their po
sitions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(A) RTA (B) 9DF
(C) #@H (D) 3V5
(E) IWH
140. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the twelfth from the l
eft end ?
(A) % (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) H
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 141–145) In each question below is given a group of digits f
ollowed by four combinations of letters/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C), and
(D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents t
he group of digits based on the coding system and the condi-tions given bel
ow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the c
ombinations correctly represents the group of digits, mark (E), i.e. ‘None
of these’ as your answer.
Digit # 5 1 3 4 9 6 8 2 7
Letter/symbol # P A K % R @ D © M
Conditions #
(i) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, the codes for the first an
d last digits are to be reversed.
(ii) If both the first and the last digits are even, both are to be coded as *.
(iii) If both the first and the last digits are odd, both are to be coded as $.
141. 215349
(A) RAPK%© (B) *APK%*
(C) $APK%$ (D) ©PAK%R
(E) None of these
142. 671254
(A) @MA©P% (B) $MA©P$
(C) *MA©P* (D) %MA©P©
(E) None of these
143. 813469
(A) RAK%@D (B) DAK%@R
(C) DAP%@R (D) *AK%@*
(E) None of these
144. 794821
(A) MR%D©A (B) AR%D©M
(C) M%RD©A (D) $R%D©$
(E) None of these
145. 591426
(A) @RA%©P (B) PRA%©@
(C) @AR%©P (D) $RA%©*
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 146–150) Study the follo-wing information carefully and an
swer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D
is second to the left of F and third to the right of H. A is second to the rig
ht of F and an immediate neighbour of H. C is second to the right of B and F i
s third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of F.
146. How many of them are between H and C ?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Two or three (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
147. Who is the immediate left of A ?
(A) H (B) E
(C) G (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
148. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immedia
te left of the second person ?
(A) CD (B) BG
(C) HA (D) FC
(E) None of these
149. Who is fourth to the right of B ?
(A) E (B) C
(C) A (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
150. What is E’s position with respect to G ?
(A) Second to the right
(B) Third of the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the left
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 151–155) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, #,
$ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be t
rue, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are defi
nitely true ?
Give answer (A), if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (B), if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (C), if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (D), if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (E), if both Conclusions I and II are true.
151. Statements : D $ N, N # F, F © T
Conclusions : I. T # N
II. D $ F
152. Statements : K © R, R $ F, F # B
Conclusions : I. B $ R
II. F # K
153. Statements : J $ M, M © K, K # N
Conclusions : I. J $ K
II. N $ M
154. Statements : F # T, T @ W, W $ H
Conclusions : I. F # H
II. F © H
155. Statements : M % T, T # R, R @ D
Conclusions : I. D $ T
II. R $ T

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :-

121. (A) T, R > M > P and T > R
T is the oldest.
122. (C) All the rest are natural while ‘Dam’ is man made.
123. (E) The meaningful words formed with the letters ESRO are : ROS
E, SORE, EROS and SERO.
124. (E) ? = 40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16
= 40 ¸ 8 ´ 10 – 12 + 16
= 408 ´ 10 – 12 + 16
= 50 – 12 + 16
= 54
125. (B) 2, 23, 234, 2345, 23456, 234567, 234 5
126. (D)
ON, ST and AB.
127. (A) B ¾® 5 and M ¾® 9
O ¾® 4 O ¾® 4
A ¾® # R ¾® 1
R ¾® 1 E ¾® $
D ¾® 2
Hence
D ¾® 2
R ¾® 1
E ¾® $
A ¾® #
M ¾® 9
128. (D) 50 = (7)2 + 1
65 = (8)2 + 1
170 = (13)2 + 1
290 = (17)2 + 1
But 255 is not like this.
129. (D) 51 22 33 15 66 98 89
130. (B) As, Similarly,
131. (E)
Or
Only I follows.
132. (B)
Or
Only II follows.
133. (C)
Or
Only either I or III follows.
134. (B)
Only I and III follow.
135. (A)
Or
None follows.
136. (C) D F 1 and N P 6
137. (D) T 4 A , F 1 U and P 6 Q
138. (C) U # and I ©
139. (B)
140. (A) 12th element from the left is U and fourth to the left of U is %.
141. (E) 215349 ©APK%R
142. (C) 671254 *MA©P*
143. (B) 813469 DAK%@R
144. (D) 794821 $ R%D©$
145. (A) 591426 @RA%©P
For Qs. 146 to 150
Seating Plan is as shown below—
146. (B) 147. (B) 148. (E) 149. (A) 150. (B)
151. (D) D $ N ® D > N, N # F ® N <> N <> F (False)
152. (B) K © R ® K = R, R $ F ® R > F
and F # B ® F <> F <> R (False)
II. F # K ® F <> M, M © K ® M = K
and K # N ® K <> M = K <> K (True)
II. N $ M ® N > M (False)
154. (D) F # T ® F < t =" W"> H
F < t =" W"> H
I. F # H ® F < r =" D" r =" D"> T (True)
II. R $ T ® R > T (True)
Labels: SBI BANK CLERK REASONING, SBI PREVIOUS SOLVED PAP
ER 0 comments
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Friday, June 6, 2008 at 10:17 PM
SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192.
How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL cod
ed in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE i
s coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what
will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then wha
t will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will
be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246 (d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALU
R. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT (d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is writ
ten as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN,
How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded
as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE c
oded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 writt
en in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 writt
en in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI b
e coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R
as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7.
So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, &
L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as
918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded a
s 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as
493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So,
MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT
is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded
as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as
76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as
ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is
coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as
LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as
ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is c
oded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7
, therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even
places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 3579
1, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI i
s coded as 3894781.
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 comments
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER 2008
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Tuesday, June 3, 2008 at 4:52 AM
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER
Directions : – Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the giv
en alternatives
1 Editor : Magazine
(a) Movie (b) Scene
(c) Drama (d) Director
2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion
(a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division
(c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region
3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ?
(a) BROW (b) DRAW
(c) CRAW (d) SLAW
4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ?
(a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI
5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?
(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ
Q-6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ?
(a) 51 (b) 53
(c) 55 (d) 57
Q-7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ?
(a) 23 (b) 48
(c) 10 (d) 42
Q-8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ?
(a) 105 (b) 104
(c) 1003 (d) 1004
DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from
the other three .
9
(a) Mile (b) Centimeter
(c) Litre (d) Yard
10
(a) High – Up (b) Past – Present
(c) Often – Seldom (d) Fresh – Stale
11
(a) 11 – 127 (b) 9 – 85
(c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29
12
(a) 26 Z (b) 24 X
(c) 22 V (d) 20 S
13
(a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206
(c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263
14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency
?
846734378344563464348
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 3
15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after to
morrow be
(a) Saturday (b) Monday
(c) Sunday (d) Friday
16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their per
imeter is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole .
(a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft
(c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft
18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but les
s than A . Who is the lowest scorer ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of t
he letter which is midway between K & S ?
(a) R (b) Q
(c) P (d) O
20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th Novembe
r be ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday
21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq
meters , then find out its breadth
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 9
22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of
the two number is -
(a) – 2 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 3
23 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ?
Speak , Reap , Shark
(a) S (b) P
(c) K (d) H
24 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes
after every kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover
3.5 kilometers ?
(a) 14 hours (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 12
25 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in
the dictionary ?
1. socks 2. Shocks
3. Sharp 4. snooker
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5
c c b b b
6 7 8 9 10
b d a c a
11 12 13 14 15
a d a c c
16 17 18 19 20
a b b a b
21 22 23 24 25
a c d c a
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 com
ments
FREE SBI REASONING SOLVED PAPER
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper at 4:04 AM
FREE SBI REASONING SOLVED PAPER
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192.
How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL cod
ed in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE i
s coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what
will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then wha
t will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will
be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
(d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALU
R. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is writ
ten as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN,
How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI (d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded
as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE c
oded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 writt
en in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 writt
en in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI b
e coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R
as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7.
So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, &
L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as
918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded a
s 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So,
MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT
is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded
as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as
76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as
ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is
coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as
LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as
ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is c
oded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7
, therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even
places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 3579
1, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI i
s coded as 3894781.
BANK PO GENERAL INTELLIGENCE ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1.If GRAMMAR is written as MAMRAGR, the ENGLISH is written as:
(a) LIGNSEH
(b) GINESHL
(c) LGINSEH
(d) NHSELGI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
2. Which of the following replaces the question mark?
MILD : NKOH :: GATE?
(a) HCWI
(b) HDVQ
(c) IBUP
(d) HDUR
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
3. If DBMDVUUB stands for Calcutta, How will you write Bombay?
(a) DQUDDXB
(b) CPMCBZ
(c) DPNCB
(d) CPNCBZ
(e) None of these
Ans (d
4.Insert the word that completes the first word and begins the second Clue: boy BAL(….)DER
(a) ERS
(b) OCK
(c) LAD
(d) LIES
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. A man travels three miles due North, then travels eight miles due East and further travels three miles due North. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 14 miles
(b) 10 miles
(c) 100 miles
(d) 15 miles
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
6. Which is the wrong member among the following?
(a) Microscope
(b) Stethoscope
(c) Telescope
(d) Periscope
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
7. From the following select the member that does not belong to the set
(a) Whale
(b) Crocodile
(c) Lizard
(d) Snake
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Which is not related in the following set?
(a) Othello
(b) King Lear
(c) Macbeth
(d) Oliver TwistV
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
9. Which is the wrong member in the following set?
(a) Graphite
(b) Diamond
(c) Pearl
(d) Coal
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. From the following select the word that does not belong to the set
(a) Cube
(b) Rectangle
(c) Rhombus
(d) Square
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
11. If in a certain code TWENTY is written as 863985 and ELEVEN is wr
itten as 323039 how is TWELVE written?
(a) 863584
(b) 863203
(c) 863903
(d) 863063
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
12. Showing a man Saroj said: “He is the brother of my Uncle’s daughter”. W
hat is the relation of Saroj with that man?
(a) Son
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Nephew
(d) Cousin
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
13.In a certain code MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER writte
n in that code?
(a) SDFHS
(b) SHFDQ
(c) QDFHS
(d) UJHFS
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
14.Choose the subject which is different from others
(a) Mathematics
(b) Arithmetic
(c) Geometry
(d) Algebra
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
15. Aluminium is to Bauxite as iron is to
(a) Pyrite
(b) Haematite
(c) Magnesite
(d) Iron Oxide
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
16. Which among the following is different from others?
(a) DE
(b) PQ
(c) TU
(d) MO
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
17. Which is the odd pair of words different from the following sets?
(a) Blacksmith : Anvil
(b) Carpenter : Saw
(c) Goldsmith : Ornaments
(d) Barber : Scissor
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
18. Which is the pair like Triangle : Hexagon?
(a) Cone : Sphere
(b) Rectangle : Octagon
(c) Pentagon : Heptagon
(d) Triangle : Quadrilateral
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
19. Bag is related to luggage in the same way as ship is related to
(a) Cargo
(b) Coal
(c) Stock
(d) Weight
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
20. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?
(a) sun
(b) solar system
(c) asteroid
(d) planet
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
21. Select the pair which has the same relationship as the given pair Traveler: Destination
(a) Beggar : Donation
(b) Teacher : Education
(c) Refugee : Shelter
(d) Accident : Hospital
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
22. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o in the clockwise direction and then 1350 in the anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) east
(b) west
(c) north
(d) south
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
23. Which is the irregular member of the following group?
(a) RQPA
(b) MLKA
(c) STUA
(d) HGFA
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
24.Choose which is least like the other words in the group?
(a) Club
(b) hotel
(c) hostel
(d) inn
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. Which among the following is same as Violet : Orange : Yellow?
(a) Purple
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1.(i) ‘P× Q’ means ‘Q’ is mother of ‘P’.
(ii) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P’ is brother of ‘Q’.
(iii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P’ is sister of ‘Q’.
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q is father of ‘P’.
Which of the following definitely means R is grandson of K?
(a) R × T ÷ K
(b) M + R × T ÷ K
(c) M – R × T ÷ K
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these.
Ans (e)
2. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 95137248 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three.
Ans (b)
3. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
4. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Food : Hunger
(b) Water : Thirst
(c) Air : Suffocation
(d) Talent : Education
(e) Leg : Lame
Ans (d)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Crow
(b) Vulture
(c) Bat
(d) Ostrich
(e) Eagle
Ans (c)
7. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of Money : weal
th?
(a) Pity : Kindness
(b) Cruel : Anger
(c) Wise : Education
(d) Pride : Humility
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) 29
(b) 85
(c) 147
(d) 125
(e) 53
Ans (d)
9. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PERMEABILITY, which of the following willbe the first letter of that word? If no such word can be formed give ‘N’ asthe answer. If only two such words can be formed give ‘D’ as the answer and if more than two such words can be formed give ‘Z’ as the answer.
(a) M
(b) L
(c) N
(d) D
(e) Z
Ans (e)
10. In a certain code language BEAM is written as 5%*K and COME is written as $7K%. How is ‘BOMB’ written in that code?
(a) 5%K5
(b) 57K5
(c) $7K$
(d) 5$%5
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. Find the number of days from 26-1-1996 to 15-5-1996 (both days inclus
ive)
(a) 110
(b) 112
(c) 111
(d) 113
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
12. Find the wrong number in the following sequence: 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 2
79, 594
(a) 279
(b) 594
(c) 121
(d) 33
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
13. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back he was four times as old as his son. What is the age of the son now?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
14. How many times between 4 a.m and 4 p.m will the hands of a clock cros
s?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
15. Five students are sitting in row. T is on right of Z. M is on the left of Z but is on the right of L. T is on the left of Q. Who is sitting first from the l eft? Here students are represented by the letters T, Z, M, L and Q
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) L
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
16. ANGER : 37219 : : NEAR:
(a) 7219
(b) 9132
(c) 1372
(d) 7139
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
17. What is the letter immediately to the right of the letter which is seven letters to the right of ‘W’, considering all the letters of the alphabet written in reverse order from left to right starting from ‘Z’
(a) R
(b) O
(c) M
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
18. If the first day of the year 1990 was a Monday, what day of the week wa
s the 1st January 1998?
(a) Thursday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Friday
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
19. If “good and bad” is coded as 123, “bad is ugly” is coded as 245 and “goo
d is fair” is coded as 436, then what is the code for “fair”?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Choose the one from the following which is different from others
(a) pen and pencil
(b) tailer and shirt
(c) scooter and cycle
(d) sword and riffle
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
21. If 2 = 1, 3 = 3, 4 = 12, 5 = 60 then 6 = …..?
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 720
(d) 360
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
22. What is the next letter of the series, F, I, L, O, …..?
(a) M
(b) N
(c) R
(d) P
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
23. How many ’5′ s are there which are followed by 0 and preceded by 0 in t he following series 157050700512515050050
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. A boy goes to see a movie and sees a man sitting to his left. He found that the man was his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mo ther. How is the man related to the boy?
(a) Uncle
(b) Nephew
(c) Brother
(d) Father
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. A person traveled 20 km in the northward direction, then traveled 4 km in eastward direction, then traveled 10 km in the northward direction again, then traveled 3 km in the eastward direction and finally traveled 6 km in th e southward direction. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 17 km
(b) 37 km
(c) 31 km
(d) 25 km
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY
1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)
2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can be
st replace the question mark (?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)
3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find ou
t the wrong term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)
4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find ou
t the wrong term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)
5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)
6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)
7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65
Ans (d)
8. In a certain code language, ’3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ’7c, 9a,
8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does n
ot perish’. Which of the following means ‘enmity’ in that language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)
9. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’;
‘Kop ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing tennis’; ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are
playing football’; and ‘po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in
that language means ‘Asha’?
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)
10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday.
Her birthday has again fall on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)
11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded
to start with how many times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)
12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were we
aring the hockey shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed
hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey pants or hockey shir
ts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)
13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and th
ey are 18 in number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two th
ird and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the class is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)
14. ‘A’ is east of ‘B’ and west of ‘C’. ‘H’ is South-West of ‘C’, ‘B’ is South-Ea
st of ‘X’. which is farthest West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)
15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months.
What part of her entire year’s earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6
Ans (b)
16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wed nesday (d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumpti ons numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the followin g assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the state ment.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in Indi
a. We still continue to import sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fulles
t capacity.
Ans (c)
18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on co
mputer peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go
up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)
20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in th e suburbs to reach their places of work on time. Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)
21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed b
ecause of the ongoing strike of its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)
22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the
matrix?
A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)
24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the
matrix?
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)
25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete t
he matrix?
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete t
he matrix?
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)
27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fac ts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fac ts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)

30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statemen ts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fact s and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from tw o given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the state ments and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
1.Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to
(a) Sanitation
(b) Treatment
(c) Medicine
(d) Doctor
Ans (a) Lack of second results in the first
2. Aflatoxin is related to Food poisoning in the same way as Histamine is rel
ated to
(a) Allergy
(b) Headache
(c) Anthrax
(d) Inhabited Ans (a) First causes the second
3. Ostrich is related to Antelope in the same way as Egret is related to
(a) Cow
(b) Buffalo
(c) Camel
(d) Zebra
Ans (b) Both live together to derive benefits from each other
4. Hong Kong is related to China in the same way as Vatican is related to..?…
(a) Canada
(b) Mexico
(c) North America
(d) Rome
Ans (d) Hong Kong is a city in china. Similarly, Vatican is a city in Rome
5. Forfeit related to Surrender in the same way as Remit is related to
(a) Perceive
(b) Confiscate
(c) Exempt
(d) Refrain
Ans (d) The words in each pair are synonyms
Directions (questins 6 to 10): Each of the questions below consists of a qu
estion and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decid
e whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, whi
le the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficien
t to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.
6. What does ‘Ne’ stands for in the code language?
I. ‘Na Ni Nok Ne’ means ‘I will tell you’ and ‘Ni Nok Ne Nam’ means ‘he will
tell you’ in that code language.
II. ‘Ni Ne Mo Nam’ means ‘will he call you’ and ‘Ne Mok Sac Ni’ means ‘how
will you go’ in that code language.
Ans (d)
7. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?
I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.
II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q
, Q being taller than P but not the tallest.
Ans (c)
8. Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?
I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.
II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book befor
e it reached E.
Ans (d)
9. Who is paternal uncle of Pavan?
I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother Smrithi.
II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mothe
r of Ganga, who is sister of Pavan.
Ans (b) 1
What is Milan’s rank in the class of 44 students?
I. Ramesh, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 6 ranks, Shyam being 7 ranks ahead of Milan. II. Suketu is 26 ranks ahead of Milan and Shyamala is 6 ranks behind Milan while Savita stands exactly in the middle of Shyamala and Suketu in ranks , her rank being 17. Ans (c) Directions (questions 11 to 15): Read the fol lowing information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
11. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
12. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
13. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
14. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
15. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these Ans (e)
16. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while o ne is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
17. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the d igit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digi t 6. How many such 4′s and 6′s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
18. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arrange d in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (questions19 to 20): In a code language any letter which is immed iately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by tha t vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter imm ediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
19. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language ?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
21. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to it s right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the fol lowing will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arr angement?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
22. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which ha ve number of letters between them in the word one less than the number o f letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
23. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
24. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
25. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTER BN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

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