KVB Clerk Exam Computer Awareness Sample Questions | Karur Vysya Bank Clerk Examination Sample Questions

KVB Clerk Exam Computer Awareness Sample Questions | Karur Vysya Bank Clerk Examination Sample Questions

Computer Awareness Sample Questions For Bank Clerk Exam
1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?
a. Printer
b. Key board
c. Mouse
d. Arithmetic & Logic unit
e. None

2. CAD stands for
a. Computer aided design
b. Computer algorithm for design
c. Computer application in design
d. All of the above
e. None

3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics?
a. Ink-jet
b. Daisy Wheel
c. Laser
d. Dot-matrix
e. None

4. A program written in machine language is called?
a. Assembler
b. Object
c. Computer
d. Machine
e. None

5. The father of Modern Computer is
a. Charles Babbage
b. Von-nuumann
c. Danies Ritchel
d. Blaise Pascal
e. None
6. The Word FTP stands for
a. File Translate Protocol
b. File Transit Protocol
c. File Transfer protocol
d. file typing protocol
e. None

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called
a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. Machine Language
d. COBOL
e. None

8. Best Quality graphics is produced by
a. Dot Matix
b. Laser Printer
c. Inkjet Printer
d. Plotter
e. None

9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as
a. Corrupted
b. Volatile
c. Non-Volatile
d. Non-Corrupted
e. None

10. The linking of computers with a communication system is called
a. Networking
b. Pairing
c. Interlocking
d. Assembling
e. Sharing

11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has
a. 16 address lines
b. 16 Buses
c. 16 Data lines
d. 16 routes
e. None

12. Data going into the computer is called
a. Output
b. algorithm
c. Input
d. Calculations
e. flow chart

13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?
a. LAN
b. DSL
c. RAM
d. USB
e. CPU

14. Microsoft Office is
a. Shareware
b.Public domain software
c. Open-sourse software
d. A vertical market application
e. An application suite

15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer
e. It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called
a. Operating System
b. Computer
c. Office
d. Compiler
e. Interpreter

17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can
a. run faster
b. go on line
c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment
d. E-mail
e. None

18. Information travels between components on the mother board through
a. Flash memory
b. CMOS
c. Bays
d. Buses
e. Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
a. Lines & spaces
b. Layers & Planes
c. Height & Width
d. Rows & Columns
e. None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the
a. mouse
b. logo
c. hand
d. palm
e. cursor

21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as
a. Boot
b. Bug
c. Biff
d. Strap
e. None

22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________
a. Bug
b. Vice
c. Lice
d. Worm
e. None

23. A _______ is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has two stable states.
a. Multivibrator
b. Flip-flop
c. Logic gates
d. laten
e. None

24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known as
a. Spam
b. Trash
c. Calibri
d. Courier
e. None

25. DOS stands for
a. Disk Operating System
b. Disk operating session
c. Digital Operating System
d. Digital Open system
e. None

26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft
a. Babbage
b. Bill Gates
c. Bill Clinton
d. Bush
e. None

27. Which of the following are input devices.
a. Keyboard
b. Mouse
c. Card reader
d. Scanner
e. All of these

28. Examples of output devices are
a. Screen
b. Printer
c. Speaker
d. All of these
e. None

29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer
a. Control unit
b. Central Processing unit
c. Arithmatic and language unit
d. Monitor
e. None

30. IBM stands for
a. Internal Business Management
b. International Business Management
c. International Business Machines
d. Internal Business Machines
e. None

31.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line
a. Compiler
b. Interpreter
c. Linker
d. Loader
e. None

32. ___________ is an OOP principle
a. Structured programming
b. Procedural programming
c. Inheritance
d. Linking
e. None

33. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications
a. Commercial
b. Scientific
c. Space
d. Mathematical
e. None

34. RAM stands for
a. Random origin money
b. Random only memory
c. Read only memory
d. Random access memory
e. None

35. 1 Byte = ?
a. 8 bits
b. 4 bits
c. 2 bits
d. 9 bits
e. None

36. SMPS stands for
a. Switched mode power supply
b. Start mode power supply
c. Store mode power supply
d. Single mode power supply
e. None

37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as
a. Modem
b. Multiplexer
c. Modulator
d. Demodulator
e. None

38. VDU is also called
a. Screen
b. Monitor
c. Both 1 & 2
d. printer
e. None

39. BIOS stands for
a. Basic Input Output system
b. Binary Input output system
c. Basic Input Off system
d. all the above
e. None

40. Father of ‘C’ programming language
a. Dennis Ritchie
b. Prof Jhon Kemeny
c. Thomas Kurtz
d. Bill Gates
e. None

ANSWERS
1. dabaa, 6. ccdba, 11. ccaec, 16. accde, 21. bdbaa, 26. bedbc, 31. bcada, 36. aacaa
Bank Clerk Examination Papers

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HKBK College of Engineering Old Question Papers | HKBK College of Engineering Previous Papers

HKBK College of Engineering Old Question Papers | HKBK College of Engineering Previous Papers

Computer Science & Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Information Science & Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Electrical & Electronics Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Electronics & Communication Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Mechanical Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem

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GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

Directions
Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.

Numbers
All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures
A figure accompanying a problem solving question is intended to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

Question
If u & t, r & q, s & t, and t & r, which of the following must be true?
I. u & s
II. s & q
III. u & r
* (A) I only
* (B) II only
* (C) III only
* (D) I and II
* (E) II and III
Answer (E)

Linear Equation Word Problems
The question given below is a Math problem in Algebra and requires framing a couple of linear equations and solving the equations.
Question 1
A poultry farm has only chickens and pigs. When the manager of the poultry counted the heads of the stock in the farm, the number totaled up to 200. However, when the number of legs was counted, the number totaled up to 540. How many chickens were there in the farm?
1. 70
2. 120
3. 60
4. 130
5. 80

The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 130.
Explanatory Answer
Let there by ‘x’ chickens and ‘y’ pigs.
Therefore, x + y = 200 — (1) Each chicken has 2 legs and each pig has 4 legs
Therefore, 2x + 4y = 540 — (2) Solving equations (1) and (2), we get x = 130 and y = 70. There were 130 chickens and 70 pigs in the farm.

Question 2
Three years back, a father was 24 years older than his son. At present the father is 5 times as old as the son. How old will the son be three years from now?
1. 12 years
2. 6 years
3. 3 years
4. 9 years
5. 27 years
The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 9 years.
Explanatory Answer
Let the age of the son 3 years back be x years Therefore, the age of the father 3 years back was x + 24 At present the age of the son is x + 3 and the father is 5 times as old as the son.
i.e., x + 24 + 3 = 5(x + 3)
i.e., x + 27 = 5x + 15
or 4x = 12 or x = 3.
Therefore, the son was 3 years old 3 years back and he will be 9 years old three years from now.

Question 3
For what values of ‘k’ will the pair of equations 3x + 4y = 12 and kx + 12y = 30 not have a unique solution?
1. 12
2. 9
3. 3
4. 7.5
5. 2.5
The correct choice is (B) and the correct answer is 9.

Question 4
The basic one-way air fare for a child aged between 3 and 10 years costs half the regular fare for an adult plus a reservation charge that is the same on the child’s ticket as on the adult’s ticket. One reserved ticket for an adult costs $216 and the cost of a reserved ticket for an adult and a child (aged between 3 and 10) costs $327. What is the basic fare for the journey for an adult?
1. $111
2. $52.5
3. $210
4. $58.5
5. $6
The correct choice is (C) and the correct answer is $210.

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GATE 2012 Patterns of Qustion Papers | GATE 2012 Question Papers Pattern

GATE 2012 Patterns of Qustion Papers | GATE 2012 Question Papers Pattern

Patterns of Qustion Papers
The pattern of question paper depends on the paper code. For GATE 2012 examination, there are 5 different patterns of question papers. The corresponding links are given below:
Papers: AG, AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, PH and PI
Papers: AE and TF
Paper: GG
Paper: XE
Paper: XL
Pattern for Papers: AG, AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, PH and PI
There will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
Q.1 to Q.25 (25 questions) carry one mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Q.26 to Q.55 (30 questions) carry two marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) carry 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
NEGATIVE MARKING:For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
Questions on Engineering Mathematics will carry about 15% of the total marks (excluding General Aptitude section) in all the papers bearing the codes AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT and PI.
Pattern for Papers: AE and TF
There will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Q.1 to Q.25 (25 questions) carry one mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Q.26 to Q.55 (30 questions) carry two marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) carry 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
Questions Q.1-Q.25 and Q.31-Q.65 are of multiple choice type. Questions Q.26-Q.30 are of numerical answer type.
Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
NEGATIVE MARKING: There is negative marking for multiple choice type questions. For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.31 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions Q.26-Q.30.
Questions on Engineering Mathematics will carry about 15% of the total marks (excluding General Aptitude section) in all the papers bearing the codes AE and TF
Pattern for Paper: GG
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Apart from General Aptitude (GA), the question paper consists of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section 1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geophysics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 questions; all questions carry 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Each of the sections (Section 1 and Section 2) in Part B consists of 30 questions; all questions carry 2-marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions pair depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is un-attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) will carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) will carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING:For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
Pattern for Paper: XE (Engineering Sciences)
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
There are 11 questions carrying 15 marks in XE Engineering Mathematics section paper (Section A), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.7 (7 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 7 marks), and questions Q.8 – Q.11 (4 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 8 marks).
Each of the other XE section papers (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions carrying 35 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.9 (9 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 9 marks). Questions Q.10 – Q.22 (13 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Questions Q.17 – Q.20 (2 pairs) are common data questions with 2-marks each. Questions Q.21 and Q.22 (1 pair) are linked answer questions with 2-marks each. The answer to the second question of the pair of linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks), and questions Q.6 – Q.10 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING:In XE Section A, for Q.1 – Q.7, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.8 – Q.11, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. In all other XE section papers (Sections B through G), for Q.1 – Q.9, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.10 – Q.20, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pair (Q.21, Q.22) is a linked answer question. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair. For Q.21, ?mark will be deducted for wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.22. In GA section, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Pattern for Paper: XL (Life Sciences)
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in XL Chemistry section paper (Section H), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks). Questions Q.6 – Q.15 (10 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Questions Q.12 and Q.13 (1 pair) are common data questions with 2-marks each. Questions Q.14 and Q.15 (1 pair) are linked answer questions with 2-marks each. The answer to the second question of the pair of linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
Each of the other XL section papers (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 (10 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and questions Q.11 – Q.20 (10 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks).
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks), and questions Q.6 – Q.10 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING: In XL Section H, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.13, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pair (Q.14, Q.15) is a linked answer question. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair. For Q.14, ?mark will be deducted for wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.15. In all other XL section papers (Sections I through M), for Q.1 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.11 – Q.20, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. In GA section, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

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Bank Of India Clerical Exam Solved Paper | Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

Bank Of India Clerical Exam Solved Paper | Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

Selection process of Bank of India Clerical exam:
Bank of India clerical exam selection process consists of two stages:

1 Written test: Both objective & descriptive.
2. Interview.
Final merit list is decided on the basis of marks scored in above two stages taken together.

Pattern of Bank of India Clerical written exam:
Objective test pattern: (300 marks)
The Objective paper of BOI written exam consists of 200 questions worth 300 mark to be answered in 90 minutes. The section-wise distribution of number of questions and marks

Download Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

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Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Sample Questions | Maharashtra SET Papers | Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Papers

Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Sample Questions | Maharashtra SET Papers | Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Papers

SAMPEL QUESTIONS PAPER- II

1. What is the basis of monopolistic competition?
(A) Product differentiation
(B) Agreement among producers
(C) Cost of production
(D) None of the above

2. The sum and substance of Maslow’s theory of motivation is
(A) Satisfied need is a motivator
(B) Unsatisfied need is not a motivator
(c) Satisfied need is no more a motivator
(D) None of the above

3. By hedging through derivatives the profit will be
(A) increased
(B) stabilised
(C) decreased
(D) None of the above

PAPER-III (A)

1. What are the barriers to communication?
Or
How do you measure the effectiveness of advertising?
PAPER-III (B)

11. What is the pricing strategy in a monopolistic competition?
Or
What are different theories of leadership?

Maharashtra SET Syllabus and Papers

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CAT Sample Paper | CAT 2011 Mock Paper

CAT Sample Paper | CAT 2011 Mock Paper

CAT Exam Sample Paper
No. of questions:185
Directions for questions 1 to 3: In each of the following questions, you are given a complete sentence. Then you are given specific instructions relating to the rewritten sentence with four answer choices 1,2,3,and 4. In rewriting the sentence, make whatever changes the new sentence structure requires without changing the basic meaning of the sentence. Then read the answer choices carefully and select the answer that is best.
1. Sudden changes in the genes of chromosomes may give rise to excellent new varieties of plant. Rewritten:
Excellent new varieties of plants ______ Next words in the rewritten sentence are may give rise may change with genes or chromosomes may rise
2. Since prehistoric times most of the continent south of the Sahara Desert has been occupied by members of the Negro Race.
Rewritten:
Negroes have ________ Somewhere in the part of the written sentence indicated by underline is the word occupied being race members
3. A good dictionary might be used as an ideal first aid for increasing your command of
words. Rewritten:
An ideal way to _______ The next word in the rewritten sentence is use increasing increase develop Directions for questions 4 to 0: The sentences are divided into four parts. Select the part which has an error.
4. The number of people who own colour T.V. are increasing every year.
5. Every year nearly 40,000 students appear in the IMS
6. Only after waiting for one and half hour was I admitted into the great man’s room.
7. Her speech neither brought credit to nor prestige to their country.
8. Together we went to the canteen for having a drink.
10. By the by, have you heard from your girl friend recently? Directions for questions 11 to 17 : in each of these questions, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked a, b, c, d. One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify that part and mark it as the answer.
11. On entering the auditorium, loud cheers greeted the President who acknowledged them with a smile and waved back happily at the gathering.
12. Much of the students are weak in Mathematics and therefore the Principal has arranged for special tuition in the evening after class-hours.
13. I am very sure that if your were me and had been talked to in a similar manner. you would also have lost your temper and talked back as I did.
14. Her Uncle advised her to forget the past, and stop crying on split milk and work hard in the future avoiding the mistakes earlier committed.
15. He declined our offer of help saying that he is very proud to accept money from neighbours like us whom he has known just for a week.
16. Whenever my son brings me a problem in Accounts
I help to solve it because
I have always liked the subject
and also like teaching young children.
17. An extremely versatile student, good at studies, sports, the accomplishments of Rajan are worthy of emulation by all the other students of the class.
Directions for questions 18 to 22: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part 1 or 2 or 3 or 4. If there is no mistake mark’5′

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Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Written Test Sample Questions

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Written Test Sample Questions

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions

1. Which of the following can be said about the King’s subjects ?
1. They were all prosperous and could afford fine clothes.
2. They had lost confidence in the King’s ability to rule because he had grown old.
3. They often requested the King to marry and start a family.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. When the seed did not germinate after weeks’ efforts why did the farmer’s son change the soil ?
(A) He was persevering by nature
(B) He spent his spare time gardening instead of playing
(C) He loved gardening but was no good at it
(D) He wasted his opportunity to be King
(E) He was the King’s favourite subject
Ans : (A)

3. Why did the King choose the farmer’s son as Gandhara’s future King ?
(A) The King realised that he had a good character and would make a worthy ruler
(B) He knew that he could easily manipulate the farmer’s son
(C) He felt sorry for the farmer’s son and wanted to give him an opportunity
(D) To reward his honesty in not asking his parents for help to grow the plant
(E) He was the one who pointed out the King’s mistake of distributing roasted seeds
Ans : (A)

4. Why did the King distribute seeds to the children of his Kingdom ?
(A) To share his love of gardening with them
(B) To make sure that the future ruler had respect for all living things
(C) It was a test to select the child most suited to be the next ruler
(D) To see if they were ambitious and competed fairly
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. Why did the children bring beautiful plants to the palace ?
(A) They wanted to gift them to the King for his garden
(B) It was a sign of affection for the King who was retiring
(C) Their parents had forced them to present flowers to the King
(D) To show the King they were more suited than the farmer’s son to rule
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. What excuse did the farmer’s son give for not being able to grow a plant successfully ?
(A) His father had refused to help him
(B) The soil and fertilizer he had used were not suitable
(C) He had shifted the seed while it was growing
(D) There was something wrong with the seed
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. What was worrying the King’s subjects ?
(A) The King was too old to bear the burden of running a kingdom
(B) The King devoted too much time to gardening
(C) The King was sick and could die at any time
(D) The King had no heir to the throne
(E) The King had selected a farmer’s son to be their King
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The King deliberately roasted the seeds as he did not want to give up his throne
(B) The King regarded honesty as an important trait for a ruler
(C) Only boys were given the opportunity to prove they were worthy to rule
(D) The King was angry that the farmer’s son had come empty handed
(E) The farmer knew why the seed given to his son would not grow
Ans : (B)

9. What made the King unhappy with the children ?
1. They had not realised that the seeds he had given them were roasted.
2. They had cheated by allowing their parents to grow their plants.
3. Since they had successfully grown plants he was forced to choose one of them as King.
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. How did the farmer deal with the fact that his son had not been able to grow anything ?
(A) Being a farmer he was ashamed that his son could not cultivate a healthy plant
(B) He was understanding, as it was impossible to grow a plant in three months
(C) He was disappointed because his son would not get the chance to be King
(D) He was sympathetic because his son had worked very hard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
11. Ignoring
(A) Unaware
(B) Delaying
(C) Disregarding
(D) Humiliating
(E) Lacking
Ans : (C)

12. Enveloped
(A) Surrounded
(B) Included
(C) Wrapped
(D) Closed
(E) Hid
Ans : (C)

13. Piled
(A) Handled
(B) Poured
(C) Utilised
(D) Provided
(E) Drowned
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
14. Content
(A) Pitying
(B) Miserable
(C) Sorrow
(D) Unlucky
(E) Unfortunate
Ans : (B)

15. Avid
(A) Unenthusiastic
(B) Efficient
(C) Boring
(D) Impartial
(E) Incompetent
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) When this boy was twelve years old he attended a party given by his parents.
(2) A boy was considered a dunce and his usual place in class was standing in a corner as punishment.
(3) The boy timidly quoted the rest of the poem and named the author.
(4) The guest, a famous writer, was delighted and said “You are a bright boy who will achieve a lot one
day”.
(5) This one word of encouragement changed the boy’s life—he went on to become a famous poet.
(6) One of the guests saw two lines of poetry underneath a painting and wanted to know who the poet was,
but no one knew.
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. It is impossible (A) to complete (B) the entire (C) project within the specified (D) time frame. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

22. The Government is certain (A) to amend (B) the law to prevail (C) the crisis. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

23. Except (A) for a few, the majority (B) of our staff has been recruited (C) locally. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. They patiently (A) explained (B) the procedure (C) for appling (D) for a loan to the villagers. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. One can succeed (A) in business unless (B) one is prepared (C) to take risks. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
26. Inspite of trying his best, Karthik delivered whatever he had promised.
(A) was unable to deliver what
(B) delivered none of
(C) could not deliver
(D) cannot deliver however
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. It was very hot last year that the roads used to be empty in the afternoon.
(A) being so hot
(B) was so hot
(C) had been very hot
(D) was much hotter
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

28. The salaries we pay our employees are equal the ones that commercial banks pay theirs.
(A) are equally like
(B) were a like
(C) is similar to
(D) are equivalent to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

29. To develop their problem solving skills trainees are encouraged to analyse situations and came to
its own solutions.
(A) come up with their
(B) came forward with their
(C) come down with its
(D) come with its
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

30. Overcoming obstacles in the course of her job giving her a lot of Self-confidence.
(A) is given her
(B) she has been given
(C) will give her
(D) by giving her
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. Rajiv is the best person (A) / to advise you since (B) / he faced plenty of difficulty (C) / while setting up his business. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

32. The University that (A) / I taught was (B) / located on the (C) / outskirts of the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. Most of my (A) / co-workers have been (B) / transferred to various (C) / neighbourly districts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

34. Though my father spent (A) / a lot of money on (B) / our education he refused to (C) / give us no pocket money. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. Often ideas and concepts (A) / are passed on from (B) / one generation to the next (C) / without being questioned. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

36. Funds that are collected (A) / in the morning has (B) / to be disbursed as (C) / new loans by afternoon. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

37. Your promotion depends (A) / on the number of (B) / projects your handling (C) / during the year. (D)
No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. Our team has spent (A) / the night entirely (B) / awake trying to decide (C) / what strategy to adopt.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. I have finally managed (A) / to convince my parents (B) / to allow myself (C) / to study abroad. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (C)

40. When he took a loan (A) / for the first time (B) / he was so nervous that (C) / he repay it early. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
One day my son called me after his exams. I could make out from his voice that he was …41… “The exam did not go so well. It was not that I did not know but I made a careless mistake.” I tried to …42… him saying, “Don’t worry, you will do better next time”. He was not pleased to hear my words. “You don’t realize how competitive it is here and how difficult it is to …43… anything.”
A few days later I got another call from him. “A …44… thing happened”, he said. “When I got my paper I saw that I had …45… marks for the question I had answered incorrectly. My friends …46… me to keep quiet as the Professor must have made a mistake. But you taught me the value of honesty so I emailed him saying I did not …47… the marks.” His reply was more surprising. “It was …48,” he said. “My interaction with you throughout the year …49… me that you knew how to solve the problem. That is the reason I gave you those marks.” I was happier about my son’s …50… than his marks.
41. (A) Bother
(B) Sad
(C) Unwell
(D) Distress
(E) Confused
Ans : (B)

42. (A) Pity
(B) Forgive
(C) Console
(D) Cheer
(E) Sympathise
Ans : (C)

43. (A) Strive
(B) Triumph
(C) Succeed
(D) Want
(E) Achieve
Ans : (E)

44. (A) Thrilled
(B) Routine
(C) Disastrous
(D) Funny
(E) Different
Ans : (D)

45. (A) Assigned
(B) Awarded
(C) Obtain
(D) Received
(E) Given
Ans : (E)

46. (A) Suggested
(B) Advised
(C) Warn
(D) Made
(E) Recommended
Ans : (B)

47. (A) Deserve
(B) Qualify
(C) Need
(D) Receive
(E) Justify
Ans : (A)

48. (A) Knowing
(B) Mistaken
(C) Oversight
(D) Deliberate
(E) Intend
Ans : (D)

49. (A) Persuade
(B) Merited
(C) Convinced
(D) Proved
(E) Informed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) Value
(B) Moral
(C) Truth
(D) Honesty
(E) Potential
Ans : (D)

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