IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Question Paper | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Test Papers | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Papers

IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Question Paper | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Test Papers | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Papers

Entrance Test for B.Ed. Special Education Programme 2011
Total No. of Questions = 100 Time : 120 Minutes
The test booklet consists of two parts ‘A’ & ‘B’. The total number of test items will be 100 of one mark each.

HOW TO FILL UP THE INFORMATION ON THE OMR RESPONSE SHEET
(EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET)
1.Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. Also write your correct name, address with Pin Code in the space provided. Put your signatures on the OMR Response Sheet with date. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided. You should use HB Pencil.
2.All information is to be filled up with HB Pencil. The circles corresponding to the digit are to be darkened with an HB pencil.
3.Do not make any stray remarks on this OMR Response Sheet.
4.Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code columns. The corresponding circles should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.
5.Each question is followed by four (or less) probable answers, which are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You should select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB pencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given under the question you should darken the circle ’0′.
Click Here To Download IGNOU B.Ed June 2011 Question Exam Paper
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Bank Of India Clerical Exam General Awareness Questions

Bank Of India Clerical Exam General Awareness Questions

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure
timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the
State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 percent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the
following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this
scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

1. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?
a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
c) P.Chidambaram
d) Sushama Swaraj
Ans : a

2. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
a) Paraguay
b) Sudan
c) Afghanistan
d) Pakistan
Ans : a

3. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
A. 15th March,2008
B. 30th March,2008
C. 28th April,2008
D. 4th May,2008
Ans : c

4. The newly constituted National Knowledge Commission is headed by
a) C. Rangarajan
b)Prof. R. S. Sharma
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Ms. Girija Vyas
Ans : c

5. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Delhi Chalo Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Non – Cooperation Movement
Ans :c

6. Pope Benedict XVI belongs to which country?
a) Italy
b) Germany
c) France
d) Poland
Ans : b

7. The media campaign “ The World Is Waiting” is related to which of the following companies?
a) Lufthansa
b) Qatar Airways
c) Indian Airlines
d) British Airways
Ans : d

8. Who among the following has been elected as President of the International Council of Science Union?
a) E. Sreedharan
b) N. Ram
c) M. G. K. Menon
d) Goverdhan Mehta
Ans : d

9. Which of the following countries launched the smallest combat aircraft in the world?
a) Germany
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
Ans : b

10. Who among the following British Governor- Generals shifted India’s capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911?
a) Lord Louis Mountbatten
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Warren Hastings
Ans : c

11. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with
a) Share market
b) Retirement benefits
c) Voluntary retirement benefits
d) Smuggling
Ans : c

12. Which of the following is the first surface- to- surface missile in India?
a) Prithvi
b) Trishul
c) Agni
d) Naag
Ans : a

13. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) India
d) Pakistan
Ans : b

14. Mist is caused by
a) Dry ice
b) Ice at low temperature
c) Water vapours at low temperature
d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
Ans : c

15. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
a) Parvathy Omanakuttan
b) Simaran Kaur Mundi
c) Amrita Thapar
d) Tanvi Vyas
Ans : b

16. Who among the following was the author of “Rajtarangini”, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
a) Banbhatta
b) Ravikirti
c) Pushpadanta
d) Kalhana
Ans : d

17. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
a) Robert Owen
b) Proudhon Pierre Joseph
c) Karl Marx
d) Saint Simon Henri Claude
Ans : c

18. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Directive Principles
of State Policy?
a) 26 to 41
b) 31 to 56
c) 36 to 51
d) 41 to 66
ANS: c

19) Which one of the following travelers is not associated with the description of the glories of
Vijayanagar kingdom?
a) Abdur Razzaq
b) Paes
c) Ibn Batutah
d) Nuniz
Ans : c :
Abdur Razzaq- Deva Raya II
Paes- Krishna Deva Raya
Ibn Batutah- Harihara I
Nuziz- Achyut Deva Raya

20. The Chinese pilgrim Fa – Hien visited India during the reign of
a) Kanishka
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Harshavardhana
Ans : c

21. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 9.5%
d) 10%
Ans : b

22. The Indian Navy’s only sailing ship, which returned to Kochi after a 10- month voyage around the globe is,
a) INS Vibhuti
b) INS Tarangini
c) INS Prabhat
d) INS Viraat
Ans : b

23) Who among the following is the Director General of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
a) Thaksin Shinawatra
b) Liang Guanglie
c) Dominique Strauss Kahn
d) Paul Wolfowitz
Ans : c

24) Who is the author of the book “Super Star India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
a) Shobha De
b) Hillory Clinton
c) Dalai Lama
d) Imran Khan
Ans : a

25) What does CECA stand for?
a) Community Enabled Cooperative Arrangement
b) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Agreement
c) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Arrangement
d) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
Ans : d

26) John wheeler was associated with -
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Botany
d) History
Ans : a
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Bank of India Clerk Reasoning Sample Questions | Bank of India Clerical Exam Reasoning Solved Papers

Bank of India Clerk Reasoning Sample Questions | Bank of India Clerical Exam Reasoning Solved Papers

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following
will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the
following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Ans : 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)
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Bank Of India Clerical Exam Solved Paper | Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

Bank Of India Clerical Exam Solved Paper | Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

Selection process of Bank of India Clerical exam:
Bank of India clerical exam selection process consists of two stages:

1 Written test: Both objective & descriptive.
2. Interview.
Final merit list is decided on the basis of marks scored in above two stages taken together.

Pattern of Bank of India Clerical written exam:
Objective test pattern: (300 marks)
The Objective paper of BOI written exam consists of 200 questions worth 300 mark to be answered in 90 minutes. The section-wise distribution of number of questions and marks

Download Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper
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Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Sample Questions | Maharashtra SET Papers | Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Papers

Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Sample Questions | Maharashtra SET Papers | Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Papers

SAMPEL QUESTIONS PAPER- II

1. What is the basis of monopolistic competition?
(A) Product differentiation
(B) Agreement among producers
(C) Cost of production
(D) None of the above

2. The sum and substance of Maslow’s theory of motivation is
(A) Satisfied need is a motivator
(B) Unsatisfied need is not a motivator
(c) Satisfied need is no more a motivator
(D) None of the above

3. By hedging through derivatives the profit will be
(A) increased
(B) stabilised
(C) decreased
(D) None of the above

PAPER-III (A)

1. What are the barriers to communication?
Or
How do you measure the effectiveness of advertising?
PAPER-III (B)

11. What is the pricing strategy in a monopolistic competition?
Or
What are different theories of leadership?

Maharashtra SET Syllabus and Papers
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NALCO GET MT Exam General Aptitude Questions | NALCO Recruitment Exam General Aptitude Question Paper

NALCO GET MT Exam General Aptitude Questions | NALCO Recruitment Exam General Aptitude Question Paper

1 Canary islands are dependencies of ?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Germany
(d) U.K.
Ans : a

2. The Strait which separates Asia from North America is
(a) The Bering Strait
(b) The Palk Strait
(c) The Strait of Gibraltar
(d) The Strait of Malacca
Ans : a

3. Long treeless grassy palms are characteristics of
(a) Campos
(B) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies
Ans : d

4. Which of the following is not a desert?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Cotopaxi
Ans : d

5. The highest waterfall of the world is ?
(a) Niagara Falls
(b) Boyomar Falls
(c) Salto Angel Falls
(d) Khone Falls
Ans : c

6. Amongst the following, which is the largest island?
(a) England
(b) Japan
(c) Borneo
(d) New Guinea
Ans : d

7.
Which is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Sahara
(b) Gobi
(c)Thar
(d)Takala Makan
Ans : a

8. Which of the following is the largest river in the
world?
(a) Nile
(b) Congo
(c) Ganges
(d) Amazon
Ans : d

9. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the word?
(a) Colorado Plateau
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Patagonia Plateau
(d) Potwar Plateau
Ans : b

10. Niagara Falls are in ?
(a) Australia
(b) U.K.
(c) South Africa
(d) USA
Ans : d

11. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a)Algeria -Niger
(b) Brazil -Amazon
(c) Iraq -Tigris
(d) Myanmar –Irrawady
Ans : a

12. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is ?
(a) 2Km
(b) 3Km
(c) 4Km
(d) 5Km

13. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

14. Adam’s bridge connects
(a) Amman and Damascus
(b) Dhanushkodi (Ramesvararn) and Talaimannar
(c) Israel and Jerusalem
(d) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
Ans : b

15 Hawaiian Islands are located in
(a) South Pacific Ocean
(b) North Pacific Ocean
(c) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Ans : b

16 The Ocean between America and Europe is called
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Atlantic
(d) Southern
Ans : c

17. Ljublajana is a part of
(a)Yugoslavia
(b) Portugal
(c)Romania
(d) Russia
Ans : a

18. Fiji islands are a part of
(a)Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c)Polynes
(d) Australasia
Ans : a

19. The Strait connecting Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal is
(a) Bering strait
(b) Dover Strait
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Vermosa Strait
Ans : a c

20. Myanmar is a new name of
(a) Burma
(b) Philippines
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Ans : a

21. Of the following, the country which is not in Oceania is
(a)Fiji
(b) Barbados
(c)New Zealand
(d) Papua New Guinea
Ans : c

22. Which of the following is the deepest lake?
(a)Lake Victoria
(b)Caspian Sea
(c)Lake Superior
(d) Lake Baikal
Ans : d

23. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Baghdad -Tigris
(b) Cairo -Rhine
(c)London -Thames
(d)New York –Hudson
Ans : b

24. The Hawaii islands are the top of submerged
(a) block mountains
(b) folded mountains
(c) volcanic mountains
(d) dome mountains
Ans : c

25. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
(a) The Gulf of Cambay
(b) The Persian Gulf
(c) The Gulf of Mexico
(d )None of these
Ans : c

26. The Great Barrier Reef is
(a) Conglomeration of corals in Australian waters
(b) Mountain range in Utah, U.S.A.
(c) Salt hills of Afghanistan
(d) Sub -Oceanic mountain in South China Sea
Ans : a

27. The hottest place in the world is
(a)Teheran,Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, India
(c)Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia,Libya
Ans : c

28. The country that has the greatest length of the day during summer is
(a) Australia
(b) Mexico
(c) Nigeria
(d) Norway
Ans : c

29. The climate of a place depends upon
(a) its distance from the equator
(b) its height above sea level
(c) Both the above
(d) Neither of the above
Ans : c

30. The maximum temperature in Thar desert during the month of May is between (in Degree centigrade)
(a) 35-37
(b) 37-39
(c) 40-43
(d) 43- 45
Ans : c

31. The Greeks classified the world climates into
1. Torrid zone or tropical climate
2. Temperate zone or moderate climate
3. Frigid zone or cold climate
Which of the following factors formed the basis of this classification ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Precipitation
(d) Wind direction
Ans : a

32. A place having an average temperature of 27 C and an annual rainfall of over 200 cm, it could be ?
(a)Tehran
(b) Singapore
(c)Nagpur
(d) Moscow
Ans : b

33. Assertion (A) :Vegetation is the Index of climate
Reason (R) :Rainfall and temperature predominantly affect the type of vegetation.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans : a

34 Extensive subsistence agriculture is
(a) Farming on the slopes of Western Ghats
(b) Farming in the thickly populated areas
(c) Farming in the thinly populated areas
(d) Farming in the forests of equatorial region
Ans : c

35.If there is high rainfall, abundant sunshine, gently sloping land and well drained soil, for which crop are the conditions most suitable?
(a) Jute
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Ans : d

36. Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Sandy
Ans : a

37. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases
(a) if frost occurs during the process of ripening
(b) if high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant
(a) if there is high temperature during the time of ripening
(d) if there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant
Ans : b

38. The important feature of shifting cultivation is
(a) Cultivation by transplantation
(b) Cultivation of Leguminous crops
(a) Change of Cultivation site
(d) Rotating of crops
Ans : c

39. Fertility of soil can be improved by
(a) Adding living earthworms
(b) Adding dead earthworms
(c) Removing dead earthworms
(d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms
Ans : a

40. The crop associated with retting process is
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton
Ans : c

41. In which of the following regions plantation agriculture is largely practised?
(a)Subtropical
(b) Semi-arid
(c)Tropical
(d) Temperate
Ans : c

42. World’s largest producer of jute is
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Burma
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

43. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term transhumance?
(a) Economy that solely depends upon animals
(b) Farming in which only one crop is cultivated by clearing hill slopes
(c) Practice of growing crops on higher hill slopes in summer and foothills in winter
(d) Seasonal migration of people with their animals up and down the mountains
Ans : d

44. The barriers that can prevent small farmers in many nations from participating in the green revolution include
(a) money for investment
(b) education
(c) small size of farms
(d) all the above
Ans : d

45. Which of the following refers to ‘Green Manure’?
(a) Adding NPK fertilizers to the soil
(b) Growing leguminous crops and ploughing it
(c) Adding farmyard manure
(d) Applying slurry manure obtained from Gobar gas plants
Ans : b

46. Which of the following is not a cash crop
(a) Cotton
(b) Groundnut
(c) Jowar
(d) Jute
Ans : c

47. Which of the following types of soils have a marked capacity to retain water?
(a) Desert soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Regur soil
Ans : d

48. The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are
(a) Rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25’ C
(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
(c) Rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25’ C
(d) Warn and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans : a

49. Which crop is generally sown to restore and maintain soil fertility?
(a) Barley
(b) Jowar
(c) Maize
(d) Pulses
Ans : d

50.
Which of the following countries consumes more fish than any other country in the world?
(a) Japan
(b) Great Britain
(c) France
(d) China
Ans : a
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CAT Sample Paper | CAT 2011 Mock Paper

CAT Sample Paper | CAT 2011 Mock Paper

CAT Exam Sample Paper
No. of questions:185
Directions for questions 1 to 3: In each of the following questions, you are given a complete sentence. Then you are given specific instructions relating to the rewritten sentence with four answer choices 1,2,3,and 4. In rewriting the sentence, make whatever changes the new sentence structure requires without changing the basic meaning of the sentence. Then read the answer choices carefully and select the answer that is best.
1. Sudden changes in the genes of chromosomes may give rise to excellent new varieties of plant. Rewritten:
Excellent new varieties of plants ______ Next words in the rewritten sentence are may give rise may change with genes or chromosomes may rise
2. Since prehistoric times most of the continent south of the Sahara Desert has been occupied by members of the Negro Race.
Rewritten:
Negroes have ________ Somewhere in the part of the written sentence indicated by underline is the word occupied being race members
3. A good dictionary might be used as an ideal first aid for increasing your command of
words. Rewritten:
An ideal way to _______ The next word in the rewritten sentence is use increasing increase develop Directions for questions 4 to 0: The sentences are divided into four parts. Select the part which has an error.
4. The number of people who own colour T.V. are increasing every year.
5. Every year nearly 40,000 students appear in the IMS
6. Only after waiting for one and half hour was I admitted into the great man’s room.
7. Her speech neither brought credit to nor prestige to their country.
8. Together we went to the canteen for having a drink.
10. By the by, have you heard from your girl friend recently? Directions for questions 11 to 17 : in each of these questions, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked a, b, c, d. One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify that part and mark it as the answer.
11. On entering the auditorium, loud cheers greeted the President who acknowledged them with a smile and waved back happily at the gathering.
12. Much of the students are weak in Mathematics and therefore the Principal has arranged for special tuition in the evening after class-hours.
13. I am very sure that if your were me and had been talked to in a similar manner. you would also have lost your temper and talked back as I did.
14. Her Uncle advised her to forget the past, and stop crying on split milk and work hard in the future avoiding the mistakes earlier committed.
15. He declined our offer of help saying that he is very proud to accept money from neighbours like us whom he has known just for a week.
16. Whenever my son brings me a problem in Accounts
I help to solve it because
I have always liked the subject
and also like teaching young children.
17. An extremely versatile student, good at studies, sports, the accomplishments of Rajan are worthy of emulation by all the other students of the class.
Directions for questions 18 to 22: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part 1 or 2 or 3 or 4. If there is no mistake mark’5′

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