KVB Clerk Exam Computer Awareness Sample Questions | Karur Vysya Bank Clerk Examination Sample Questions

KVB Clerk Exam Computer Awareness Sample Questions | Karur Vysya Bank Clerk Examination Sample Questions

Computer Awareness Sample Questions For Bank Clerk Exam
1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?
a. Printer
b. Key board
c. Mouse
d. Arithmetic & Logic unit
e. None

2. CAD stands for
a. Computer aided design
b. Computer algorithm for design
c. Computer application in design
d. All of the above
e. None

3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics?
a. Ink-jet
b. Daisy Wheel
c. Laser
d. Dot-matrix
e. None

4. A program written in machine language is called?
a. Assembler
b. Object
c. Computer
d. Machine
e. None

5. The father of Modern Computer is
a. Charles Babbage
b. Von-nuumann
c. Danies Ritchel
d. Blaise Pascal
e. None
6. The Word FTP stands for
a. File Translate Protocol
b. File Transit Protocol
c. File Transfer protocol
d. file typing protocol
e. None

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called
a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. Machine Language
d. COBOL
e. None

8. Best Quality graphics is produced by
a. Dot Matix
b. Laser Printer
c. Inkjet Printer
d. Plotter
e. None

9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as
a. Corrupted
b. Volatile
c. Non-Volatile
d. Non-Corrupted
e. None

10. The linking of computers with a communication system is called
a. Networking
b. Pairing
c. Interlocking
d. Assembling
e. Sharing

11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has
a. 16 address lines
b. 16 Buses
c. 16 Data lines
d. 16 routes
e. None

12. Data going into the computer is called
a. Output
b. algorithm
c. Input
d. Calculations
e. flow chart

13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?
a. LAN
b. DSL
c. RAM
d. USB
e. CPU

14. Microsoft Office is
a. Shareware
b.Public domain software
c. Open-sourse software
d. A vertical market application
e. An application suite

15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer
e. It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called
a. Operating System
b. Computer
c. Office
d. Compiler
e. Interpreter

17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can
a. run faster
b. go on line
c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment
d. E-mail
e. None

18. Information travels between components on the mother board through
a. Flash memory
b. CMOS
c. Bays
d. Buses
e. Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
a. Lines & spaces
b. Layers & Planes
c. Height & Width
d. Rows & Columns
e. None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the
a. mouse
b. logo
c. hand
d. palm
e. cursor

21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as
a. Boot
b. Bug
c. Biff
d. Strap
e. None

22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________
a. Bug
b. Vice
c. Lice
d. Worm
e. None

23. A _______ is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has two stable states.
a. Multivibrator
b. Flip-flop
c. Logic gates
d. laten
e. None

24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known as
a. Spam
b. Trash
c. Calibri
d. Courier
e. None

25. DOS stands for
a. Disk Operating System
b. Disk operating session
c. Digital Operating System
d. Digital Open system
e. None

26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft
a. Babbage
b. Bill Gates
c. Bill Clinton
d. Bush
e. None

27. Which of the following are input devices.
a. Keyboard
b. Mouse
c. Card reader
d. Scanner
e. All of these

28. Examples of output devices are
a. Screen
b. Printer
c. Speaker
d. All of these
e. None

29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer
a. Control unit
b. Central Processing unit
c. Arithmatic and language unit
d. Monitor
e. None

30. IBM stands for
a. Internal Business Management
b. International Business Management
c. International Business Machines
d. Internal Business Machines
e. None

31.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line
a. Compiler
b. Interpreter
c. Linker
d. Loader
e. None

32. ___________ is an OOP principle
a. Structured programming
b. Procedural programming
c. Inheritance
d. Linking
e. None

33. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications
a. Commercial
b. Scientific
c. Space
d. Mathematical
e. None

34. RAM stands for
a. Random origin money
b. Random only memory
c. Read only memory
d. Random access memory
e. None

35. 1 Byte = ?
a. 8 bits
b. 4 bits
c. 2 bits
d. 9 bits
e. None

36. SMPS stands for
a. Switched mode power supply
b. Start mode power supply
c. Store mode power supply
d. Single mode power supply
e. None

37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as
a. Modem
b. Multiplexer
c. Modulator
d. Demodulator
e. None

38. VDU is also called
a. Screen
b. Monitor
c. Both 1 & 2
d. printer
e. None

39. BIOS stands for
a. Basic Input Output system
b. Binary Input output system
c. Basic Input Off system
d. all the above
e. None

40. Father of ‘C’ programming language
a. Dennis Ritchie
b. Prof Jhon Kemeny
c. Thomas Kurtz
d. Bill Gates
e. None

ANSWERS
1. dabaa, 6. ccdba, 11. ccaec, 16. accde, 21. bdbaa, 26. bedbc, 31. bcada, 36. aacaa
Bank Clerk Examination Papers

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HKBK College of Engineering Old Question Papers | HKBK College of Engineering Previous Papers

HKBK College of Engineering Old Question Papers | HKBK College of Engineering Previous Papers

Computer Science & Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Information Science & Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Electrical & Electronics Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Electronics & Communication Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem Mechanical Engineering III Sem IV Sem V Sem VI Sem VII Sem VIII Sem

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GMAT Problem Solving Test Paper | GMAT Quantitative Section Test Paper

GMAT Problem Solving Test Paper | GMAT Quantitative Section Test Paper

1. Of the following, which is greater than ½ ?
A. 2/5
B. 4/7
C. 4/9
D. 5/11
E. 6/13

2. If an object travels at five feet per second, how many feet does it travel in one hour?
A. 30
B. 300
C. 720
D. 1800
E. 18000

3. What is the average (arithmetic mean) of all the multiples of ten from 10 to 190 inclusive?
A. 90
B. 95
C. 100
D. 105
E. 110

4. A cubical block of metal weighs 6 pounds. How much will another cube of the same metal weigh if its sides are twice as long?
A. 48
B. 32
C. 24
D. 18
E. 12

5. In a class of 78 students 41 are taking French, 22 are taking German and 9 students are taking both French and German. How many students are not enrolled in either course?
A. 6
B. 15
C. 24
D. 33
E. 54

6. A straight fence is to be constructed from posts 6 inches wide and separated by lengths of chain 5 feet long. If a certain fence begins and ends with a post, which of the following could not be the length of the fence in feet? (12 inches = 1 foot)
A. 17
B. 28
C. 35
D. 39
E. 50

7. ( √2 – √3 )² =
A. 5 – 2√6
B. 5 – √6
C. 1 – 2√6
D. 1 – √2
E. 1

8. 2³⁰ + 2³⁰ + 2³⁰ + 2³⁰ =
B. 8³⁰
C. 2³²
D. 2³⁰
E. 2²⁶


9. Amy has to visit towns B and C in any order. The roads connecting these towns with her home are shown on the diagram. How many different routes can she take starting from A and returning to A, going through both B and C (but not more than once through each) and not travelling any road twice on the same trip?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4
E. 2


10. In the figure above AD = 4, AB = 3 and CD = 9. What is the area of triangle AEC ?
A. 18
B. 13.5
C. 9
D. 4.5
E. 3

11. Which of the following could be a value of x, in the diagram above?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 50
E. any of the above

12. Helpers are needed to prepare for the fete. Each helper can make either 2 large cakes per hour, or 35 small cakes per hour. The kitchen is available for 3 hours and 20 large cakes and 700 small cakes are needed. How many helpers are required?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30

13. Jo’s collection contains US, Indian and British stamps. If the ratio of US to Indian stamps is 5 to 2 and the ratio of Indian to British stamps is 5 to 1, what is the ratio of US to British stamps?
A. 5 : 1
B. 10 : 5
C. 15 : 2
D. 20 : 2
E. 25 : 2

14. A 3 by 4 rectangle is inscribed in circle. What is the circumference of the circle?
A. 2.5π
B. 3π
C. 5π
D. 4π
E. 10π

15. Two sets of 4 consecutive positive integers have exactly one integer in common. The sum of the integers in the set with greater numbers is how much greater than the sum of the integers in the other set?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8
D. 12
E. it cannot be determined from the information given.

16. A circular logo is enlarged to fit the lid of a jar. The new diameter is 50 per cent larger than the original. By what percentage has the area of the logo increased?
A. 50
B. 80
C. 100
D. 125
E. 250

17. ABCD is a square of side 3, and E and F are the mid points of sides AB and BC respectively. What is the area of the quadrilateral EBFD ?
A. 2.25
B. 3
C. 4
D. 4.5
E. 6

11. Which of the following could be a value of x, in the diagram above?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 50
E. any of the above

12. Helpers are needed to prepare for the fete. Each helper can make either 2 large cakes per hour, or 35 small cakes per hour. The kitchen is available for 3 hours and 20 large cakes and 700 small cakes are needed. How many helpers are required?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30

13. Jo’s collection contains US, Indian and British stamps. If the ratio of US to Indian stamps is 5 to 2 and the ratio of Indian to British stamps is 5 to 1, what is the ratio of US to British stamps?
A. 5 : 1
B. 10 : 5
C. 15 : 2
D. 20 : 2
E. 25 : 2

14. A 3 by 4 rectangle is inscribed in circle. What is the circumference of the circle?
A. 2.5π
B. 3π
C. 5π
D. 4π
E. 10π

15. Two sets of 4 consecutive positive integers have exactly one integer in common. The sum of the integers in the set with greater numbers is how much greater than the sum of the integers in the other set?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8
D. 12
E. it cannot be determined from the information given.

16. A circular logo is enlarged to fit the lid of a jar. The new diameter is 50 per cent larger than the original. By what percentage has the area of the logo increased?

A. 50
B. 80
C. 100
D. 125
E. 250

17. ABCD is a square of side 3, and E and F are the mid points of sides AB and BC respectively. What is the area of the quadrilateral EBFD ?

A. 2.25
B. 3
C. 4
D. 4.5
E. 6

18. If n ≠ 0, which of the following must be greater than n?

I 2n
II n²
III 2 – n

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. None

19. After being dropped a certain ball always bounces back to 2/5 of the height of its previous bounce. After the first bounce it reaches a height of 125 inches. How high (in inches) will it reach after its fourth bounce?
A. 20
B. 15
C. 8
D. 5
E. 3.2

20. n and p are integers greater than 1 5n is the square of a number 75np is the cube of a number. The smallest value for n + p is
A. 14
B. 18
C. 20
D. 30
E. 50

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GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

Directions
Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.

Numbers
All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures
A figure accompanying a problem solving question is intended to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

Question
If u > t, r > q, s > t, and t > r, which of the following must be true?
I. u > s
II. s > q
III. u > r
* (A) I only
* (B) II only
* (C) III only
* (D) I and II
* (E) II and III
Answer (E)

Linear Equation Word Problems
The question given below is a Math problem in Algebra and requires framing a couple of linear equations and solving the equations.

Question 1
A poultry farm has only chickens and pigs. When the manager of the poultry counted the heads of the stock in the farm, the number totaled up to 200. However, when the number of legs was counted, the number totaled up to 540. How many chickens were there in the farm?
1. 70
2. 120
3. 60
4. 130
5. 80
The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 130.
Explanatory Answer
Let there by ‘x’ chickens and ‘y’ pigs.
Therefore, x + y = 200 — (1)
Each chicken has 2 legs and each pig has 4 legs
Therefore, 2x + 4y = 540 — (2)
Solving equations (1) and (2), we get x = 130 and y = 70.
There were 130 chickens and 70 pigs in the farm.

Question 2
Three years back, a father was 24 years older than his son. At present the father is 5 times as old as the son. How old will the son be three years from now?
1. 12 years
2. 6 years
3. 3 years
4. 9 years
5. 27 years
The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 9 years.
Explanatory Answer
Let the age of the son 3 years back be x years
Therefore, the age of the father 3 years back was x + 24
At present the age of the son is x + 3 and the father is 5 times as old as the son.
i.e., x + 24 + 3 = 5(x + 3)
i.e., x + 27 = 5x + 15
or 4x = 12 or x = 3.
Therefore, the son was 3 years old 3 years back and he will be 9 years old three years from now.

Question 3
For what values of ‘k’ will the pair of equations 3x + 4y = 12 and kx + 12y = 30 not have a unique solution?
1. 12
2. 9
3. 3
4. 7.5
5. 2.5
The correct choice is (B) and the correct answer is 9.

Question 4
The basic one-way air fare for a child aged between 3 and 10 years costs half the regular fare for an adult plus a reservation charge that is the same on the child’s ticket as on the adult’s ticket. One reserved ticket for an adult costs $216 and the cost of a reserved ticket for an adult and a child (aged between 3 and 10) costs $327. What is the basic fare for the journey for an adult?
1. $111
2. $52.5
3. $210
4. $58.5
5. $6
The correct choice is (C) and the correct answer is $210.

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United Bank of India Clerk Exam Numerical Ability Solved Questions | UBI Clerical Exam Numerical Ability Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Exams Numerical

United Bank of India Clerk Exam Numerical Ability Solved Questions | UBI Clerical Exam Numerical Ability Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Exams Numerical Ability Questions

Numerical Ability Questions For Bank Clerk Exams

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance? (a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes 5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of
radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10
years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the numbe is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food
last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) ?5r (d) ?3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) ?2 (d) ?3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8
cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
50. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
50. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
50. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

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GATE 2012 Patterns of Qustion Papers | GATE 2012 Question Papers Pattern

GATE 2012 Patterns of Qustion Papers | GATE 2012 Question Papers Pattern

Patterns of Qustion Papers
The pattern of question paper depends on the paper code. For GATE 2011 examination, there are 5 different patterns of question papers. The corresponding links are given below:

Papers: AG, AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, PH and PI
Papers: AE and TF
Paper: GG
Paper: XE
Paper: XL
Pattern for Papers: AG, AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, PH and PI

There will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
Q.1 to Q.25 (25 questions) carry one mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Q.26 to Q.55 (30 questions) carry two marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) carry 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
NEGATIVE MARKING:For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
Questions on Engineering Mathematics will carry about 15% of the total marks (excluding General Aptitude section) in all the papers bearing the codes AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT and PI.
Pattern for Papers: AE and TF
There will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Q.1 to Q.25 (25 questions) carry one mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Q.26 to Q.55 (30 questions) carry two marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) carry 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
Questions Q.1-Q.25 and Q.31-Q.65 are of multiple choice type. Questions Q.26-Q.30 are of numerical answer type.
Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
NEGATIVE MARKING: There is negative marking for multiple choice type questions. For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.31 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions Q.26-Q.30.
Questions on Engineering Mathematics will carry about 15% of the total marks (excluding General Aptitude section) in all the papers bearing the codes AE and TF
Pattern for Paper: GG
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Apart from General Aptitude (GA), the question paper consists of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section 1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geophysics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 questions; all questions carry 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Each of the sections (Section 1 and Section 2) in Part B consists of 30 questions; all questions carry 2-marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions pair depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is un-attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) will carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) will carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING:For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
Pattern for Paper: XE (Engineering Sciences)
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
There are 11 questions carrying 15 marks in XE Engineering Mathematics section paper (Section A), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.7 (7 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 7 marks), and questions Q.8 – Q.11 (4 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 8 marks).
Each of the other XE section papers (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions carrying 35 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.9 (9 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 9 marks). Questions Q.10 – Q.22 (13 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Questions Q.17 – Q.20 (2 pairs) are common data questions with 2-marks each. Questions Q.21 and Q.22 (1 pair) are linked answer questions with 2-marks each. The answer to the second question of the pair of linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks), and questions Q.6 – Q.10 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING:In XE Section A, for Q.1 – Q.7, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.8 – Q.11, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. In all other XE section papers (Sections B through G), for Q.1 – Q.9, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.10 – Q.20, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pair (Q.21, Q.22) is a linked answer question. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair. For Q.21, ?mark will be deducted for wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.22. In GA section, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Pattern for Paper: XL (Life Sciences)
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in XL Chemistry section paper (Section H), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks). Questions Q.6 – Q.15 (10 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Questions Q.12 and Q.13 (1 pair) are common data questions with 2-marks each. Questions Q.14 and Q.15 (1 pair) are linked answer questions with 2-marks each. The answer to the second question of the pair of linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
Each of the other XL section papers (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 (10 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and questions Q.11 – Q.20 (10 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks).
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks), and questions Q.6 – Q.10 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING: In XL Section H, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.13, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pair (Q.14, Q.15) is a linked answer question. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair. For Q.14, ?mark will be deducted for wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.15. In all other XL section papers (Sections I through M), for Q.1 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.11 – Q.20, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. In GA section, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

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GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

Directions
Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.

Numbers
All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures
A figure accompanying a problem solving question is intended to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

Question
If u & t, r & q, s & t, and t & r, which of the following must be true?
I. u & s
II. s & q
III. u & r
* (A) I only
* (B) II only
* (C) III only
* (D) I and II
* (E) II and III
Answer (E)

Linear Equation Word Problems
The question given below is a Math problem in Algebra and requires framing a couple of linear equations and solving the equations.
Question 1
A poultry farm has only chickens and pigs. When the manager of the poultry counted the heads of the stock in the farm, the number totaled up to 200. However, when the number of legs was counted, the number totaled up to 540. How many chickens were there in the farm?
1. 70
2. 120
3. 60
4. 130
5. 80

The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 130.
Explanatory Answer
Let there by ‘x’ chickens and ‘y’ pigs.
Therefore, x + y = 200 — (1) Each chicken has 2 legs and each pig has 4 legs
Therefore, 2x + 4y = 540 — (2) Solving equations (1) and (2), we get x = 130 and y = 70. There were 130 chickens and 70 pigs in the farm.

Question 2
Three years back, a father was 24 years older than his son. At present the father is 5 times as old as the son. How old will the son be three years from now?
1. 12 years
2. 6 years
3. 3 years
4. 9 years
5. 27 years
The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 9 years.
Explanatory Answer
Let the age of the son 3 years back be x years Therefore, the age of the father 3 years back was x + 24 At present the age of the son is x + 3 and the father is 5 times as old as the son.
i.e., x + 24 + 3 = 5(x + 3)
i.e., x + 27 = 5x + 15
or 4x = 12 or x = 3.
Therefore, the son was 3 years old 3 years back and he will be 9 years old three years from now.

Question 3
For what values of ‘k’ will the pair of equations 3x + 4y = 12 and kx + 12y = 30 not have a unique solution?
1. 12
2. 9
3. 3
4. 7.5
5. 2.5
The correct choice is (B) and the correct answer is 9.

Question 4
The basic one-way air fare for a child aged between 3 and 10 years costs half the regular fare for an adult plus a reservation charge that is the same on the child’s ticket as on the adult’s ticket. One reserved ticket for an adult costs $216 and the cost of a reserved ticket for an adult and a child (aged between 3 and 10) costs $327. What is the basic fare for the journey for an adult?
1. $111
2. $52.5
3. $210
4. $58.5
5. $6
The correct choice is (C) and the correct answer is $210.

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