GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

GMAT Problem Solving Questions | GMAT Quantitative Sample Questions

Directions
Solve the problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given.

Numbers
All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures
A figure accompanying a problem solving question is intended to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

Question
If u & t, r & q, s & t, and t & r, which of the following must be true?
I. u & s
II. s & q
III. u & r
* (A) I only
* (B) II only
* (C) III only
* (D) I and II
* (E) II and III
Answer (E)

Linear Equation Word Problems
The question given below is a Math problem in Algebra and requires framing a couple of linear equations and solving the equations.
Question 1
A poultry farm has only chickens and pigs. When the manager of the poultry counted the heads of the stock in the farm, the number totaled up to 200. However, when the number of legs was counted, the number totaled up to 540. How many chickens were there in the farm?
1. 70
2. 120
3. 60
4. 130
5. 80

The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 130.
Explanatory Answer
Let there by ‘x’ chickens and ‘y’ pigs.
Therefore, x + y = 200 — (1) Each chicken has 2 legs and each pig has 4 legs
Therefore, 2x + 4y = 540 — (2) Solving equations (1) and (2), we get x = 130 and y = 70. There were 130 chickens and 70 pigs in the farm.

Question 2
Three years back, a father was 24 years older than his son. At present the father is 5 times as old as the son. How old will the son be three years from now?
1. 12 years
2. 6 years
3. 3 years
4. 9 years
5. 27 years
The correct choice is (D) and the correct answer is 9 years.
Explanatory Answer
Let the age of the son 3 years back be x years Therefore, the age of the father 3 years back was x + 24 At present the age of the son is x + 3 and the father is 5 times as old as the son.
i.e., x + 24 + 3 = 5(x + 3)
i.e., x + 27 = 5x + 15
or 4x = 12 or x = 3.
Therefore, the son was 3 years old 3 years back and he will be 9 years old three years from now.

Question 3
For what values of ‘k’ will the pair of equations 3x + 4y = 12 and kx + 12y = 30 not have a unique solution?
1. 12
2. 9
3. 3
4. 7.5
5. 2.5
The correct choice is (B) and the correct answer is 9.

Question 4
The basic one-way air fare for a child aged between 3 and 10 years costs half the regular fare for an adult plus a reservation charge that is the same on the child’s ticket as on the adult’s ticket. One reserved ticket for an adult costs $216 and the cost of a reserved ticket for an adult and a child (aged between 3 and 10) costs $327. What is the basic fare for the journey for an adult?
1. $111
2. $52.5
3. $210
4. $58.5
5. $6
The correct choice is (C) and the correct answer is $210.

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United Bank of India Clerk Exam Numerical Ability Solved Questions | UBI Clerical Exam Numerical Ability Sample Questions

United Bank of India Clerk Exam Numerical Ability Solved Questions | UBI Clerical Exam Numerical Ability Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Exams Numerical Ability Questions

Numerical Ability Questions For Bank Clerk Exams

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of
radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10
years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the numbe is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food
last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) ?5r (d) ?3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) ?2 (d) ?3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8
cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31

Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

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GATE 2012 Patterns of Qustion Papers | GATE 2012 Question Papers Pattern

GATE 2012 Patterns of Qustion Papers | GATE 2012 Question Papers Pattern

Patterns of Qustion Papers
The pattern of question paper depends on the paper code. For GATE 2012 examination, there are 5 different patterns of question papers. The corresponding links are given below:
Papers: AG, AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, PH and PI
Papers: AE and TF
Paper: GG
Paper: XE
Paper: XL
Pattern for Papers: AG, AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, PH and PI
There will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
Q.1 to Q.25 (25 questions) carry one mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Q.26 to Q.55 (30 questions) carry two marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) carry 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
NEGATIVE MARKING:For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
Questions on Engineering Mathematics will carry about 15% of the total marks (excluding General Aptitude section) in all the papers bearing the codes AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT and PI.
Pattern for Papers: AE and TF
There will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Q.1 to Q.25 (25 questions) carry one mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Q.26 to Q.55 (30 questions) carry two marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) carry 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
Questions Q.1-Q.25 and Q.31-Q.65 are of multiple choice type. Questions Q.26-Q.30 are of numerical answer type.
Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
NEGATIVE MARKING: There is negative marking for multiple choice type questions. For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.31 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions Q.26-Q.30.
Questions on Engineering Mathematics will carry about 15% of the total marks (excluding General Aptitude section) in all the papers bearing the codes AE and TF
Pattern for Paper: GG
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Apart from General Aptitude (GA), the question paper consists of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section 1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geophysics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 questions; all questions carry 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks). Each of the sections (Section 1 and Section 2) in Part B consists of 30 questions; all questions carry 2-marks each (sub-total 60 marks). Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions. and Qquestion pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions pair depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is un-attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 (5 questions) will carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and questions Q.61 – Q.65 (5 questions) will carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING:For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
Pattern for Paper: XE (Engineering Sciences)
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
There are 11 questions carrying 15 marks in XE Engineering Mathematics section paper (Section A), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.7 (7 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 7 marks), and questions Q.8 – Q.11 (4 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 8 marks).
Each of the other XE section papers (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions carrying 35 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.9 (9 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 9 marks). Questions Q.10 – Q.22 (13 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Questions Q.17 – Q.20 (2 pairs) are common data questions with 2-marks each. Questions Q.21 and Q.22 (1 pair) are linked answer questions with 2-marks each. The answer to the second question of the pair of linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks), and questions Q.6 – Q.10 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING:In XE Section A, for Q.1 – Q.7, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.8 – Q.11, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. In all other XE section papers (Sections B through G), for Q.1 – Q.9, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.10 – Q.20, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pair (Q.21, Q.22) is a linked answer question. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair. For Q.21, ?mark will be deducted for wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.22. In GA section, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Pattern for Paper: XL (Life Sciences)
There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in XL Chemistry section paper (Section H), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks). Questions Q.6 – Q.15 (10 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Questions Q.12 and Q.13 (1 pair) are common data questions with 2-marks each. Questions Q.14 and Q.15 (1 pair) are linked answer questions with 2-marks each. The answer to the second question of the pair of linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
Each of the other XL section papers (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 (10 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and questions Q.11 – Q.20 (10 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks).
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 (5 questions) carry 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks), and questions Q.6 – Q.10 (5 questions) carry 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
NEGATIVE MARKING: In XL Section H, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.13, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pair (Q.14, Q.15) is a linked answer question. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair. For Q.14, ?mark will be deducted for wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.15. In all other XL section papers (Sections I through M), for Q.1 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.11 – Q.20, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. In GA section, for Q.1 – Q.5, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and for Q.6 – Q.10, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

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IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Question Paper | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Test Papers | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Papers

IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Question Paper | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Test Papers | IGNOU B.Ed Entrance Exam Papers

Entrance Test for B.Ed. Special Education Programme 2011
Total No. of Questions = 100 Time : 120 Minutes
The test booklet consists of two parts ‘A’ & ‘B’. The total number of test items will be 100 of one mark each.

HOW TO FILL UP THE INFORMATION ON THE OMR RESPONSE SHEET
(EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET)
1.Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. Also write your correct name, address with Pin Code in the space provided. Put your signatures on the OMR Response Sheet with date. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided. You should use HB Pencil.
2.All information is to be filled up with HB Pencil. The circles corresponding to the digit are to be darkened with an HB pencil.
3.Do not make any stray remarks on this OMR Response Sheet.
4.Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code columns. The corresponding circles should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.
5.Each question is followed by four (or less) probable answers, which are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You should select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB pencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given under the question you should darken the circle ’0′.
Click Here To Download IGNOU B.Ed June 2011 Question Exam Paper

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Bank Of India Clerical Exam General Awareness Questions

Bank Of India Clerical Exam General Awareness Questions

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure
timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the
State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 percent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the
following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this
scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

1. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?
a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
c) P.Chidambaram
d) Sushama Swaraj
Ans : a

2. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
a) Paraguay
b) Sudan
c) Afghanistan
d) Pakistan
Ans : a

3. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
A. 15th March,2008
B. 30th March,2008
C. 28th April,2008
D. 4th May,2008
Ans : c

4. The newly constituted National Knowledge Commission is headed by
a) C. Rangarajan
b)Prof. R. S. Sharma
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Ms. Girija Vyas
Ans : c

5. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Delhi Chalo Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Non – Cooperation Movement
Ans :c

6. Pope Benedict XVI belongs to which country?
a) Italy
b) Germany
c) France
d) Poland
Ans : b

7. The media campaign “ The World Is Waiting” is related to which of the following companies?
a) Lufthansa
b) Qatar Airways
c) Indian Airlines
d) British Airways
Ans : d

8. Who among the following has been elected as President of the International Council of Science Union?
a) E. Sreedharan
b) N. Ram
c) M. G. K. Menon
d) Goverdhan Mehta
Ans : d

9. Which of the following countries launched the smallest combat aircraft in the world?
a) Germany
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
Ans : b

10. Who among the following British Governor- Generals shifted India’s capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911?
a) Lord Louis Mountbatten
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Warren Hastings
Ans : c

11. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with
a) Share market
b) Retirement benefits
c) Voluntary retirement benefits
d) Smuggling
Ans : c

12. Which of the following is the first surface- to- surface missile in India?
a) Prithvi
b) Trishul
c) Agni
d) Naag
Ans : a

13. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) India
d) Pakistan
Ans : b

14. Mist is caused by
a) Dry ice
b) Ice at low temperature
c) Water vapours at low temperature
d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
Ans : c

15. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
a) Parvathy Omanakuttan
b) Simaran Kaur Mundi
c) Amrita Thapar
d) Tanvi Vyas
Ans : b

16. Who among the following was the author of “Rajtarangini”, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
a) Banbhatta
b) Ravikirti
c) Pushpadanta
d) Kalhana
Ans : d

17. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
a) Robert Owen
b) Proudhon Pierre Joseph
c) Karl Marx
d) Saint Simon Henri Claude
Ans : c

18. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Directive Principles
of State Policy?
a) 26 to 41
b) 31 to 56
c) 36 to 51
d) 41 to 66
ANS: c

19) Which one of the following travelers is not associated with the description of the glories of
Vijayanagar kingdom?
a) Abdur Razzaq
b) Paes
c) Ibn Batutah
d) Nuniz
Ans : c :
Abdur Razzaq- Deva Raya II
Paes- Krishna Deva Raya
Ibn Batutah- Harihara I
Nuziz- Achyut Deva Raya

20. The Chinese pilgrim Fa – Hien visited India during the reign of
a) Kanishka
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Harshavardhana
Ans : c

21. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 9.5%
d) 10%
Ans : b

22. The Indian Navy’s only sailing ship, which returned to Kochi after a 10- month voyage around the globe is,
a) INS Vibhuti
b) INS Tarangini
c) INS Prabhat
d) INS Viraat
Ans : b

23) Who among the following is the Director General of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
a) Thaksin Shinawatra
b) Liang Guanglie
c) Dominique Strauss Kahn
d) Paul Wolfowitz
Ans : c

24) Who is the author of the book “Super Star India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
a) Shobha De
b) Hillory Clinton
c) Dalai Lama
d) Imran Khan
Ans : a

25) What does CECA stand for?
a) Community Enabled Cooperative Arrangement
b) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Agreement
c) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Arrangement
d) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
Ans : d

26) John wheeler was associated with -
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Botany
d) History
Ans : a

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Bank of India Clerk Reasoning Sample Questions | Bank of India Clerical Exam Reasoning Solved Papers

Bank of India Clerk Reasoning Sample Questions | Bank of India Clerical Exam Reasoning Solved Papers

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following
will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the
following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Ans : 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)

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Bank Of India Clerical Exam Solved Paper | Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

Bank Of India Clerical Exam Solved Paper | Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

Selection process of Bank of India Clerical exam:
Bank of India clerical exam selection process consists of two stages:

1 Written test: Both objective & descriptive.
2. Interview.
Final merit list is decided on the basis of marks scored in above two stages taken together.

Pattern of Bank of India Clerical written exam:
Objective test pattern: (300 marks)
The Objective paper of BOI written exam consists of 200 questions worth 300 mark to be answered in 90 minutes. The section-wise distribution of number of questions and marks

Download Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

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Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Sample Questions | Maharashtra SET Papers | Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Papers

Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Sample Questions | Maharashtra SET Papers | Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Papers

SAMPEL QUESTIONS PAPER- II

1. What is the basis of monopolistic competition?
(A) Product differentiation
(B) Agreement among producers
(C) Cost of production
(D) None of the above

2. The sum and substance of Maslow’s theory of motivation is
(A) Satisfied need is a motivator
(B) Unsatisfied need is not a motivator
(c) Satisfied need is no more a motivator
(D) None of the above

3. By hedging through derivatives the profit will be
(A) increased
(B) stabilised
(C) decreased
(D) None of the above

PAPER-III (A)

1. What are the barriers to communication?
Or
How do you measure the effectiveness of advertising?
PAPER-III (B)

11. What is the pricing strategy in a monopolistic competition?
Or
What are different theories of leadership?

Maharashtra SET Syllabus and Papers

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NALCO GET MT Exam General Aptitude Questions | NALCO Recruitment Exam General Aptitude Question Paper

NALCO GET MT Exam General Aptitude Questions | NALCO Recruitment Exam General Aptitude Question Paper

1 Canary islands are dependencies of ?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Germany
(d) U.K.
Ans : a

2. The Strait which separates Asia from North America is
(a) The Bering Strait
(b) The Palk Strait
(c) The Strait of Gibraltar
(d) The Strait of Malacca
Ans : a

3. Long treeless grassy palms are characteristics of
(a) Campos
(B) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies
Ans : d

4. Which of the following is not a desert?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Cotopaxi
Ans : d

5. The highest waterfall of the world is ?
(a) Niagara Falls
(b) Boyomar Falls
(c) Salto Angel Falls
(d) Khone Falls
Ans : c

6. Amongst the following, which is the largest island?
(a) England
(b) Japan
(c) Borneo
(d) New Guinea
Ans : d

7. Which is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Sahara
(b) Gobi
(c)Thar
(d)Takala Makan
Ans : a

8. Which of the following is the largest river in the
world?
(a) Nile
(b) Congo
(c) Ganges
(d) Amazon
Ans : d

9. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the word?
(a) Colorado Plateau
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Patagonia Plateau
(d) Potwar Plateau
Ans : b

10. Niagara Falls are in ?
(a) Australia
(b) U.K.
(c) South Africa
(d) USA
Ans : d

11. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a)Algeria -Niger
(b) Brazil -Amazon
(c) Iraq -Tigris
(d) Myanmar –Irrawady
Ans : a

12. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is ?
(a) 2Km
(b) 3Km
(c) 4Km
(d) 5Km

13. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

14. Adam’s bridge connects
(a) Amman and Damascus
(b) Dhanushkodi (Ramesvararn) and Talaimannar
(c) Israel and Jerusalem
(d) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
Ans : b

15 Hawaiian Islands are located in
(a) South Pacific Ocean
(b) North Pacific Ocean
(c) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Ans : b

16 The Ocean between America and Europe is called
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Atlantic
(d) Southern
Ans : c

17. Ljublajana is a part of
(a)Yugoslavia
(b) Portugal
(c)Romania
(d) Russia
Ans : a

18. Fiji islands are a part of
(a)Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c)Polynes
(d) Australasia
Ans : a

19. The Strait connecting Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal is
(a) Bering strait
(b) Dover Strait
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Vermosa Strait
Ans : a c

20. Myanmar is a new name of
(a) Burma
(b) Philippines
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Ans : a

21. Of the following, the country which is not in Oceania is
(a)Fiji
(b) Barbados
(c)New Zealand
(d) Papua New Guinea
Ans : c

22. Which of the following is the deepest lake?
(a)Lake Victoria
(b)Caspian Sea
(c)Lake Superior
(d) Lake Baikal
Ans : d

23. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Baghdad -Tigris
(b) Cairo -Rhine
(c)London -Thames
(d)New York –Hudson
Ans : b

24. The Hawaii islands are the top of submerged
(a) block mountains
(b) folded mountains
(c) volcanic mountains
(d) dome mountains
Ans : c

25. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
(a) The Gulf of Cambay
(b) The Persian Gulf
(c) The Gulf of Mexico
(d )None of these
Ans : c

26. The Great Barrier Reef is
(a) Conglomeration of corals in Australian waters
(b) Mountain range in Utah, U.S.A.
(c) Salt hills of Afghanistan
(d) Sub -Oceanic mountain in South China Sea
Ans : a

27. The hottest place in the world is
(a)Teheran,Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, India
(c)Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia,Libya
Ans : c

28. The country that has the greatest length of the day during summer is
(a) Australia
(b) Mexico
(c) Nigeria
(d) Norway
Ans : c

29. The climate of a place depends upon
(a) its distance from the equator
(b) its height above sea level
(c) Both the above
(d) Neither of the above
Ans : c

30. The maximum temperature in Thar desert during the month of May is between (in Degree centigrade)
(a) 35-37
(b) 37-39
(c) 40-43
(d) 43- 45
Ans : c

31. The Greeks classified the world climates into
1. Torrid zone or tropical climate
2. Temperate zone or moderate climate
3. Frigid zone or cold climate
Which of the following factors formed the basis of this classification ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Precipitation
(d) Wind direction
Ans : a

32. A place having an average temperature of 27 C and an annual rainfall of over 200 cm, it could be ?
(a)Tehran
(b) Singapore
(c)Nagpur
(d) Moscow
Ans : b

33. Assertion (A) :Vegetation is the Index of climate
Reason (R) :Rainfall and temperature predominantly affect the type of vegetation.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans : a

34 Extensive subsistence agriculture is
(a) Farming on the slopes of Western Ghats
(b) Farming in the thickly populated areas
(c) Farming in the thinly populated areas
(d) Farming in the forests of equatorial region
Ans : c

35.If there is high rainfall, abundant sunshine, gently sloping land and well drained soil, for which crop are the conditions most suitable?
(a) Jute
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Ans : d

36. Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Sandy
Ans : a

37. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases
(a) if frost occurs during the process of ripening
(b) if high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant
(a) if there is high temperature during the time of ripening
(d) if there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant
Ans : b

38. The important feature of shifting cultivation is
(a) Cultivation by transplantation
(b) Cultivation of Leguminous crops
(a) Change of Cultivation site
(d) Rotating of crops
Ans : c

39. Fertility of soil can be improved by
(a) Adding living earthworms
(b) Adding dead earthworms
(c) Removing dead earthworms
(d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms
Ans : a

40. The crop associated with retting process is
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton
Ans : c

41. In which of the following regions plantation agriculture is largely practised?
(a)Subtropical
(b) Semi-arid
(c)Tropical
(d) Temperate
Ans : c

42. World’s largest producer of jute is
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Burma
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

43. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term transhumance?
(a) Economy that solely depends upon animals
(b) Farming in which only one crop is cultivated by clearing hill slopes
(c) Practice of growing crops on higher hill slopes in summer and foothills in winter
(d) Seasonal migration of people with their animals up and down the mountains
Ans : d

44. The barriers that can prevent small farmers in many nations from participating in the green revolution include
(a) money for investment
(b) education
(c) small size of farms
(d) all the above
Ans : d

45. Which of the following refers to ‘Green Manure’?
(a) Adding NPK fertilizers to the soil
(b) Growing leguminous crops and ploughing it
(c) Adding farmyard manure
(d) Applying slurry manure obtained from Gobar gas plants
Ans : b

46. Which of the following is not a cash crop
(a) Cotton
(b) Groundnut
(c) Jowar
(d) Jute
Ans : c

47. Which of the following types of soils have a marked capacity to retain water?
(a) Desert soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Regur soil
Ans : d

48. The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are
(a) Rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25’ C
(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
(c) Rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25’ C
(d) Warn and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans : a

49. Which crop is generally sown to restore and maintain soil fertility?
(a) Barley
(b) Jowar
(c) Maize
(d) Pulses
Ans : d

50. Which of the following countries consumes more fish than any other country in the world?
(a) Japan
(b) Great Britain
(c) France
(d) China
Ans : a

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CAT Sample Paper | CAT 2011 Mock Paper

CAT Sample Paper | CAT 2011 Mock Paper

CAT Exam Sample Paper
No. of questions:185
Directions for questions 1 to 3: In each of the following questions, you are given a complete sentence. Then you are given specific instructions relating to the rewritten sentence with four answer choices 1,2,3,and 4. In rewriting the sentence, make whatever changes the new sentence structure requires without changing the basic meaning of the sentence. Then read the answer choices carefully and select the answer that is best.
1. Sudden changes in the genes of chromosomes may give rise to excellent new varieties of plant. Rewritten:
Excellent new varieties of plants ______ Next words in the rewritten sentence are may give rise may change with genes or chromosomes may rise
2. Since prehistoric times most of the continent south of the Sahara Desert has been occupied by members of the Negro Race.
Rewritten:
Negroes have ________ Somewhere in the part of the written sentence indicated by underline is the word occupied being race members
3. A good dictionary might be used as an ideal first aid for increasing your command of
words. Rewritten:
An ideal way to _______ The next word in the rewritten sentence is use increasing increase develop Directions for questions 4 to 0: The sentences are divided into four parts. Select the part which has an error.
4. The number of people who own colour T.V. are increasing every year.
5. Every year nearly 40,000 students appear in the IMS
6. Only after waiting for one and half hour was I admitted into the great man’s room.
7. Her speech neither brought credit to nor prestige to their country.
8. Together we went to the canteen for having a drink.
10. By the by, have you heard from your girl friend recently? Directions for questions 11 to 17 : in each of these questions, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked a, b, c, d. One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify that part and mark it as the answer.
11. On entering the auditorium, loud cheers greeted the President who acknowledged them with a smile and waved back happily at the gathering.
12. Much of the students are weak in Mathematics and therefore the Principal has arranged for special tuition in the evening after class-hours.
13. I am very sure that if your were me and had been talked to in a similar manner. you would also have lost your temper and talked back as I did.
14. Her Uncle advised her to forget the past, and stop crying on split milk and work hard in the future avoiding the mistakes earlier committed.
15. He declined our offer of help saying that he is very proud to accept money from neighbours like us whom he has known just for a week.
16. Whenever my son brings me a problem in Accounts
I help to solve it because
I have always liked the subject
and also like teaching young children.
17. An extremely versatile student, good at studies, sports, the accomplishments of Rajan are worthy of emulation by all the other students of the class.
Directions for questions 18 to 22: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part 1 or 2 or 3 or 4. If there is no mistake mark’5′

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SSA Monthly Test Question Papers | Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Monthly Test Question Papers | SSA Punjab-September 2011 Question Paper

SSA Monthly Test Question Papers | Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Monthly Test Question Papers | SSA Punjab-September 2011 Question Paper

SSA Punjab Class-VII
Subject: English-September – 2011
Time: 3 hrs.

M.M.100

Q.1 Read the following paragraph and answer the questions below it :

(12)

Akbar was a great Mughal Emperor. He was the son of Humayun. He was barely thirteen when he became the Emperor. He is popularly called ‘Akbar the Great’, There were nine jewels or wise men
( Navratnas ) in Akbar’s court. Birbal was the wisest of them. He was Akbar’s favourite. The ministers did not like this and thought of a plan to kill Birbal.
i) Who was Akbar ?
ii) When did he become an Emperor ?
iii) What was he popularly known as ?
iv) How many jewels did Akbar have and what were they called ?
v) Who was the wisest of them ?
vi) Who planned to kill Birbal ?
Q.2 Answer the following questions :- (Any 4)

(12)

i) Where did Androcles see the lion ?
ii) Where was Kalpana born ?
iii) Where did the little boy take the giant ?
iv) What did Gandhi ji steal when he was fifteen ?
v) Of what use would the hump be to the camel ?
Q.3 Answer the following questions :- (Poetry) (Any 2)

(6)

i) Who gets into the bed first, the shadow or the poet ?
ii) How did the fox console himself when he could not reach the grapes ?
iii) In what forms was man before he came into being ?
Q.4 Make sentences of the following words :- (Any 5)

(5)

1. suicide
2. vacation
3. thorn
4. exile
5. resident
6. barren
Q.5 Write T for True and F for false statements :

(5)

i) Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian astronaut.
ii) The camel is called the “boat of the desert”.
iii) Androcles saw a thorn struck in lion’s paw.
iv) Birbal passed eight months in exile.
v) Kalpana had done 750 hours in space.
Q.6 Write a paragraph on any one of the following :-

(10)

i) The Story Book I enjoyed the most.
ii) A market near my house.
Q.7 Suppose you are the PTI teacher of your school. Write a notice requesting the students to enrol for free yoga classes.

OR

Suppose you are Manish.Write a telegram to your brother Mohit informing him about your arrival in Delhi on Sept. 25, 2010.

(6)

Q.8 Write a story any one of the following :-

(10)

The sun and the wind

OR

The donkey and the clever master
Q.9 Write a letter to your friend describing your visit to your grandparents.

(10)

Q.10 Do as directed :-

(24 marks)

i) Mrs. Singh is the president of Chandigarh Club.
[underline the proper noun]

(1)

ii) king, bride, bachelor, boy.
[change the gender]

(2)

iii) baby, wolf, bench, man.
[change the number]

(2)

iv) The queen bought a necklace.
[underline the verb]

(1)

v) adventure, appreciate, creed, deprived
[arrange in alphabetical order]

(2)

vi)1. Think …………. ……………. [conjugate the given verbs]

(2)

2. See …………… …………..
vii) Fill in the blanks with appropriate degree of comparison
1. happy …………… happiest
2. bad worst ……………

(2)

viii) In / burrows / rabbits / live.
[Rewrite the jumbled words]

(2)

ix) Write the opposites of the following words.

(2)

soft, full, late, inside
x) He heard the roar ——– a lion.
[Fill in the preposition] (1)
xi) 1. The pages were torn by them.
[State whether Active / Passive ] Voice
2. The father drives the car.
[State whether Active / Passive ] Voice

(1)

xii) I have / has found a bag.
[ Choose the correct verb ]

(1)

xiii) ………….. wind sweeps ………… sand into huge wave like mounds called sand dunes.
[Fill in the blank with suitable article]

(1)

xiv) Give one word for the following :-

(4)

1. Place where nothing grows ………….
2. Very big . ………….
3. Living beings . ……….
4. Thorny plant with a thick fleshy stem.

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TCS Placement Paper Held on Sept 2011 at Chaitanya Engineering College Visakhapatnam

TCS Placement Paper Held on Sept 2011 at Chaitanya Engineering College Visakhapatnam

Aptitude Test consists of 35 questions to answer in 1 hour with 0.33 Negative (–ve) marking for each wrong answer. (1 mark will be deducted for 3 wrong answers)
Cut off will be around 20 and one can score around 25 with min preparation.
Next rounds are Technical and HR. Coming to questions first search for the numerical data in the questions and find the logic how the questions can be solved (as the Questions are very lengthy with 5 to 10 lines) I don’t remember exactly all the Questions here are some which may help you all. (NOTE: The Questions are repeating so its nic idea to just go through previous papers.) QUESTIONS :
1) There are two pipes A and B. If A filled 10 liters in hour B can fills 20 liters in same time. Likewise B can fill 10, 20, 40, 80,160….if B filled in (1/16) th of a tank in 3 hours, how much time will it take to fill completely? Answer: 7 hours
2) In a market 4 man are standing .the average age of the four before 4years is 45, after some days one man is added and his age is 49.what is the average weight of all?
Answer: 49
3) The three sides of a triangle are given.18, 18, 28 cms and this triangle is conveted into a square. so what will be the area of the square generated?
Answer: – (18+18+28)/4. Then you will get the 1 side of a square and now find the area of a square.i.e, side^2
4) One train travels 200m from A to B with 70 km/ph. and returns to A with 80kmph, what is the average of their speed? Answer: apply 2xy/x+y
5) An equation of the form 7x+17y+ 3z=54. Find the difference between x intercept and z intercept? Hint: x/a+y/b+z/c=1 Answer: convert the above equation to this form and see the difference between a and c then you will get the answer
6) A man went 1mile to east den 1mile to north (un wanted stuff) and killed a bear what is the color of the bear? Answer: White
7) Out of 6 children the youngest is boy then find the probability that all the remaining children are boys. Answer: 1/2^5 = 1/32
8) Some age, average related problems (practice R. S.Aggarwal )
9) (1/2) of a number is 3 times more than the (1/6) of the same number..?
10) Permutation problem don’t remember exactly, but it was almost like there are n people sitting. Find the number of handshakes
11) A pizza shop, there were 2 kinds of pizzas available. But now they have introduces 8 new types, a person buy two different type pizzas of new type in how many ways he can select? Answer: 8 X 7=56
12) Average wt of class is (some number) kg after adding wt of the teacher average wt of class becomes some number kg then what is the wt of the teacher??
13) Series Problem like 4 12 x 44 46 132 134. Find x? (I could not solve out this in exam).
14) There are 1000 pillars for a temple. 3 friends Linda, Chelsey, Juli visited that temple. (Som unrelated stuff) Linda is taller than Chelsey and taller than 2 of 1000 pillars. Juli is shorter than Linda. Find the correct sentence?
– -> a) Linda is shorter among them
– ->b) Chelsey is taller than Juli
– -> c) Chelsey is shorter than Juli
– -> d) Cannot determine who is taller among Chelsey and Juli
Answer: d
15) Dhoni and Ponting are waiting for the toss to happen. Umpire found that the coin to be tossed is missing. Ponting then takes a dice (1-6) from his pocket and asks the umpire to toss with it. Umpire feels both the captains may not get fair chance with dice. Dhoni den suggests a solution to umpire which den wud give fair chance to both captains. What would be the idea of Dhoni?
a) Toss the dice if even no comes captain wil win the toss and if it is odd he loses.
16) A toy train can make 10 sounds sound changes after every 4 min………………………….. now train is defective and can make only 2 sounds…………………………….. Find probability that same sound is repeated 3 times consecutively (1 OUT OF __)?
1. 16
2. 8
3. 12
4. 4
Answer: (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = (1/8)
17) Probability problem (little tricky)
18) Entry ticket to an exhibition ranges from 1p to 7p. You need to provide exact change at the counter. You have 7p coin. In how many parts will u divide 7p so that u will provide the exact change required and carry as less coins as possible?
a) 8 b) 7 c) 5 d) 3 (I cud not solve out the answer in exam)
19) Some Statement and Conclusion type problems

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DBHPS Model Question Papers Previous | Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha Parichaya Model Question Papers | DBHPS Previous Papers

DBHPS Model Question Papers | Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha Parichaya Model Question Papers | DBHPS Previous Papers

B.A I Year – May 2011

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B.A I Year – May 2010

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B.A II Year – May 2011

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B.A II Year – May 2010

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B.A III Year – May 2010

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M.A I Year – May 2011

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M.A I Year – May 2010

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M.A II Year – May 2010

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M.Phil – May 2011

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M.Phil – May 2009

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P.G.D.T – May 2010

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P.G.D.T – May 2009

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GATE CS 2010 Solved Paper | GATE Computer Science Solved Paper 2009

GATE CS 2010 Solved Paper | GATE Computer Science Solved Paper 2009

Q. No. 1 – 20 Carry One Mark Each

1. Which one of the following in NOT necessarily a property of a Group?
(A) Commutativity (B) Associativity
(C) Existence of inverse for every element (D) Existence of identity

2. What is the chromatic number of an n-vertex simple connected graph which does not contain any odd length cycle? Assume n³ 2.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) n-1 (D) n

3. Which one of the following is TRUE for any simple connected undirected graph with more than 2 vertices?
(A) No two vertices have the same degree.
(B) At least two vertices have the same degree.
(C) At least three vertices have the same degree.
(D) All vertices have the same degree.

4. Consider the binary relation R = {(x,y), (x,z), (z,x), (z,y)} on the set {x,y,z}. Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) R is symmetric but NOT antisymmetric
(B) R is NOT symmetric but antisymmetric
(C) R is both symmetric and antisymmetric
(D) R is neither symmetric nor antisymmetric

5. (1217)8 is equivalent to
(A) (1217)16 (B) (028F)16 (C) (2297)10 (D) (0B17)16

6. What is the minimum number of gates required to implement the Boolean
function (AB+C) if we have to use only 2-input NOR gates?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

7. How many 32K x 1 RAM chips are needed to provide a memory capacity of 256Kbytes?
(A) 8 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 128

8. A CPU generally handles an interrupt by executing an interrupt service routine
(A) As soon as an interrupt is raised
(B) By checking the interrupt register at the end of fetch cycle.
(C) By checking the interrupt register after finishing the execution of the current instruction.
(D) By checking the interrupt register at fixed time intervals.

9. In which one of the following page replacement policies, Belady’s anomaly may occur?
(A) FIFO (B) Optimal (C) LRU (D) MRU

10. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is / are
(A) Virtual page number
(B) Page frame number
(C) Both virtual page number and page frame number
(D) Access right information

11. What is the number of swaps required to sort n elements using selection sort, in the worst case?
(A) q(n) (B) q(n log n) (C) 2 q(n ) (D) 2 q(n log n)

12. S ® aSa bSb a b ;The language generated by the above grammar over the alphabet {a,b} is the set of
(A) All palindromes.
(B) All odd length palindromes.
(C) Strings that begin and end with the same symbol
(D) All even length palindromes.

13. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct regarding Bellman-Ford shortest path algorithm?
P. Always finds a negative weighted cycle, if one exists.
Q. Finds whether any negative weighted cycle is reachable from the source.
(A) P only (B) Q only
(C) both P and Q (D) Neither P nor Q

14. Let A p be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) There is no polynomial time algorithm for A p .
(B) If A p can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.
(C) If A p is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.
(D) A p may be undecidable.

15. Which one of the following languages over the alphabet {0,1} is described by the regular expression: (0+1)*0(0+1)*0(0+1)*?
(A) The set of all strings containing the substring 00.
(B) The set of all strings containing at most two 0’s.
(C) The set of all strings containing at least two 0’s.
(D) The set of all strings that begin and end with either 0 or 1.

16. Which one of the following is FALSE?
(A) There is unique minimal DFA for every regular language
(B) Every NFA can be converted to an equivalent PDA.
(C) Complement of every context-free language is recursive.
(D) Every nondeterministic PDA can be converted to an equivalent deterministic PDA.

17. Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2

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Bank Clerk Written Exam Reading Comprehension Mock Papers Solved Questions

Bank of India Clerk Exam General English Solved Questions | Bank Clerk Written Exam Reading Comprehension Mock Papers

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone. The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on. The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off. The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !” His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead. The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?” “You’ll get it when you go far away.” “But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?” His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”
41. Why did the woman’s second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her

Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot

49. Packed
(A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)

52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)

53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)

54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall.(D) No error (E)

55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required

58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t
yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

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