SSA Monthly Test Question Papers | Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Monthly Test Question Papers | SSA Punjab-September 2011 Question Paper

SSA Monthly Test Question Papers | Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Monthly Test Question Papers | SSA Punjab-September 2011 Question Paper

SSA Punjab Class-VII
Subject: English-September – 2011
Time: 3 hrs.

M.M.100

Q.1 Read the following paragraph and answer the questions below it :

(12)

Akbar was a great Mughal Emperor. He was the son of Humayun. He was barely thirteen when he became the Emperor. He is popularly called ‘Akbar the Great’, There were nine jewels or wise men
( Navratnas ) in Akbar’s court. Birbal was the wisest of them. He was Akbar’s favourite. The ministers did not like this and thought of a plan to kill Birbal.
i) Who was Akbar ?
ii) When did he become an Emperor ?
iii) What was he popularly known as ?
iv) How many jewels did Akbar have and what were they called ?
v) Who was the wisest of them ?
vi) Who planned to kill Birbal ?
Q.2 Answer the following questions :- (Any 4)

(12)

i) Where did Androcles see the lion ?
ii) Where was Kalpana born ?
iii) Where did the little boy take the giant ?
iv) What did Gandhi ji steal when he was fifteen ?
v) Of what use would the hump be to the camel ?
Q.3 Answer the following questions :- (Poetry) (Any 2)

(6)

i) Who gets into the bed first, the shadow or the poet ?
ii) How did the fox console himself when he could not reach the grapes ?
iii) In what forms was man before he came into being ?
Q.4 Make sentences of the following words :- (Any 5)

(5)

1. suicide
2. vacation
3. thorn
4. exile
5. resident
6. barren
Q.5 Write T for True and F for false statements :

(5)

i) Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian astronaut.
ii) The camel is called the “boat of the desert”.
iii) Androcles saw a thorn struck in lion’s paw.
iv) Birbal passed eight months in exile.
v) Kalpana had done 750 hours in space.
Q.6 Write a paragraph on any one of the following :-

(10)

i) The Story Book I enjoyed the most.
ii) A market near my house.
Q.7 Suppose you are the PTI teacher of your school. Write a notice requesting the students to enrol for free yoga classes.

OR

Suppose you are Manish.Write a telegram to your brother Mohit informing him about your arrival in Delhi on Sept. 25, 2010.

(6)

Q.8 Write a story any one of the following :-

(10)

The sun and the wind

OR

The donkey and the clever master
Q.9 Write a letter to your friend describing your visit to your grandparents.

(10)

Q.10 Do as directed :-

(24 marks)

i) Mrs. Singh is the president of Chandigarh Club.
[underline the proper noun]

(1)

ii) king, bride, bachelor, boy.
[change the gender]

(2)

iii) baby, wolf, bench, man.
[change the number]

(2)

iv) The queen bought a necklace.
[underline the verb]

(1)

v) adventure, appreciate, creed, deprived
[arrange in alphabetical order]

(2)

vi)1. Think …………. ……………. [conjugate the given verbs]

(2)

2. See …………… …………..
vii) Fill in the blanks with appropriate degree of comparison
1. happy …………… happiest
2. bad worst ……………

(2)

viii) In / burrows / rabbits / live.
[Rewrite the jumbled words]

(2)

ix) Write the opposites of the following words.

(2)

soft, full, late, inside
x) He heard the roar ——– a lion.
[Fill in the preposition] (1)
xi) 1. The pages were torn by them.
[State whether Active / Passive ] Voice
2. The father drives the car.
[State whether Active / Passive ] Voice

(1)

xii) I have / has found a bag.
[ Choose the correct verb ]

(1)

xiii) ………….. wind sweeps ………… sand into huge wave like mounds called sand dunes.
[Fill in the blank with suitable article]

(1)

xiv) Give one word for the following :-

(4)

1. Place where nothing grows ………….
2. Very big . ………….
3. Living beings . ……….
4. Thorny plant with a thick fleshy stem.

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TCS Placement Paper Held on Sept 2011 at Chaitanya Engineering College Visakhapatnam

TCS Placement Paper Held on Sept 2011 at Chaitanya Engineering College Visakhapatnam

Aptitude Test consists of 35 questions to answer in 1 hour with 0.33 Negative (–ve) marking for each wrong answer. (1 mark will be deducted for 3 wrong answers)
Cut off will be around 20 and one can score around 25 with min preparation.
Next rounds are Technical and HR. Coming to questions first search for the numerical data in the questions and find the logic how the questions can be solved (as the Questions are very lengthy with 5 to 10 lines) I don’t remember exactly all the Questions here are some which may help you all. (NOTE: The Questions are repeating so its nic idea to just go through previous papers.) QUESTIONS :
1) There are two pipes A and B. If A filled 10 liters in hour B can fills 20 liters in same time. Likewise B can fill 10, 20, 40, 80,160….if B filled in (1/16) th of a tank in 3 hours, how much time will it take to fill completely? Answer: 7 hours
2) In a market 4 man are standing .the average age of the four before 4years is 45, after some days one man is added and his age is 49.what is the average weight of all?
Answer: 49
3) The three sides of a triangle are given.18, 18, 28 cms and this triangle is conveted into a square. so what will be the area of the square generated?
Answer: – (18+18+28)/4. Then you will get the 1 side of a square and now find the area of a square.i.e, side^2
4) One train travels 200m from A to B with 70 km/ph. and returns to A with 80kmph, what is the average of their speed? Answer: apply 2xy/x+y
5) An equation of the form 7x+17y+ 3z=54. Find the difference between x intercept and z intercept? Hint: x/a+y/b+z/c=1 Answer: convert the above equation to this form and see the difference between a and c then you will get the answer
6) A man went 1mile to east den 1mile to north (un wanted stuff) and killed a bear what is the color of the bear? Answer: White
7) Out of 6 children the youngest is boy then find the probability that all the remaining children are boys. Answer: 1/2^5 = 1/32
8) Some age, average related problems (practice R. S.Aggarwal )
9) (1/2) of a number is 3 times more than the (1/6) of the same number..?
10) Permutation problem don’t remember exactly, but it was almost like there are n people sitting. Find the number of handshakes
11) A pizza shop, there were 2 kinds of pizzas available. But now they have introduces 8 new types, a person buy two different type pizzas of new type in how many ways he can select? Answer: 8 X 7=56
12) Average wt of class is (some number) kg after adding wt of the teacher average wt of class becomes some number kg then what is the wt of the teacher??
13) Series Problem like 4 12 x 44 46 132 134. Find x? (I could not solve out this in exam).
14) There are 1000 pillars for a temple. 3 friends Linda, Chelsey, Juli visited that temple. (Som unrelated stuff) Linda is taller than Chelsey and taller than 2 of 1000 pillars. Juli is shorter than Linda. Find the correct sentence?
– -> a) Linda is shorter among them
– ->b) Chelsey is taller than Juli
– -> c) Chelsey is shorter than Juli
– -> d) Cannot determine who is taller among Chelsey and Juli
Answer: d
15) Dhoni and Ponting are waiting for the toss to happen. Umpire found that the coin to be tossed is missing. Ponting then takes a dice (1-6) from his pocket and asks the umpire to toss with it. Umpire feels both the captains may not get fair chance with dice. Dhoni den suggests a solution to umpire which den wud give fair chance to both captains. What would be the idea of Dhoni?
a) Toss the dice if even no comes captain wil win the toss and if it is odd he loses.
16) A toy train can make 10 sounds sound changes after every 4 min………………………….. now train is defective and can make only 2 sounds…………………………….. Find probability that same sound is repeated 3 times consecutively (1 OUT OF __)?
1. 16
2. 8
3. 12
4. 4
Answer: (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = (1/8)
17) Probability problem (little tricky)
18) Entry ticket to an exhibition ranges from 1p to 7p. You need to provide exact change at the counter. You have 7p coin. In how many parts will u divide 7p so that u will provide the exact change required and carry as less coins as possible?
a) 8 b) 7 c) 5 d) 3 (I cud not solve out the answer in exam)
19) Some Statement and Conclusion type problems

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DBHPS Model Question Papers Previous | Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha Parichaya Model Question Papers | DBHPS Previous Papers

DBHPS Model Question Papers | Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha Parichaya Model Question Papers | DBHPS Previous Papers

B.A I Year – May 2011

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M.Phil – May 2011

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GATE CS 2010 Solved Paper | GATE Computer Science Solved Paper 2009

GATE CS 2010 Solved Paper | GATE Computer Science Solved Paper 2009

Q. No. 1 – 20 Carry One Mark Each

1. Which one of the following in NOT necessarily a property of a Group?
(A) Commutativity (B) Associativity
(C) Existence of inverse for every element (D) Existence of identity

2. What is the chromatic number of an n-vertex simple connected graph which does not contain any odd length cycle? Assume n³ 2.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) n-1 (D) n

3. Which one of the following is TRUE for any simple connected undirected graph with more than 2 vertices?
(A) No two vertices have the same degree.
(B) At least two vertices have the same degree.
(C) At least three vertices have the same degree.
(D) All vertices have the same degree.

4. Consider the binary relation R = {(x,y), (x,z), (z,x), (z,y)} on the set {x,y,z}. Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) R is symmetric but NOT antisymmetric
(B) R is NOT symmetric but antisymmetric
(C) R is both symmetric and antisymmetric
(D) R is neither symmetric nor antisymmetric

5. (1217)8 is equivalent to
(A) (1217)16 (B) (028F)16 (C) (2297)10 (D) (0B17)16

6. What is the minimum number of gates required to implement the Boolean
function (AB+C) if we have to use only 2-input NOR gates?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

7. How many 32K x 1 RAM chips are needed to provide a memory capacity of 256Kbytes?
(A) 8 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 128

8. A CPU generally handles an interrupt by executing an interrupt service routine
(A) As soon as an interrupt is raised
(B) By checking the interrupt register at the end of fetch cycle.
(C) By checking the interrupt register after finishing the execution of the current instruction.
(D) By checking the interrupt register at fixed time intervals.

9. In which one of the following page replacement policies, Belady’s anomaly may occur?
(A) FIFO (B) Optimal (C) LRU (D) MRU

10. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is / are
(A) Virtual page number
(B) Page frame number
(C) Both virtual page number and page frame number
(D) Access right information

11. What is the number of swaps required to sort n elements using selection sort, in the worst case?
(A) q(n) (B) q(n log n) (C) 2 q(n ) (D) 2 q(n log n)

12. S ® aSa bSb a b ;The language generated by the above grammar over the alphabet {a,b} is the set of
(A) All palindromes.
(B) All odd length palindromes.
(C) Strings that begin and end with the same symbol
(D) All even length palindromes.

13. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct regarding Bellman-Ford shortest path algorithm?
P. Always finds a negative weighted cycle, if one exists.
Q. Finds whether any negative weighted cycle is reachable from the source.
(A) P only (B) Q only
(C) both P and Q (D) Neither P nor Q

14. Let A p be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) There is no polynomial time algorithm for A p .
(B) If A p can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.
(C) If A p is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.
(D) A p may be undecidable.

15. Which one of the following languages over the alphabet {0,1} is described by the regular expression: (0+1)*0(0+1)*0(0+1)*?
(A) The set of all strings containing the substring 00.
(B) The set of all strings containing at most two 0’s.
(C) The set of all strings containing at least two 0’s.
(D) The set of all strings that begin and end with either 0 or 1.

16. Which one of the following is FALSE?
(A) There is unique minimal DFA for every regular language
(B) Every NFA can be converted to an equivalent PDA.
(C) Complement of every context-free language is recursive.
(D) Every nondeterministic PDA can be converted to an equivalent deterministic PDA.

17. Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2

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Bank Clerk Written Exam Reading Comprehension Mock Papers Solved Questions

Bank of India Clerk Exam General English Solved Questions | Bank Clerk Written Exam Reading Comprehension Mock Papers

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone. The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on. The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off. The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !” His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead. The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?” “You’ll get it when you go far away.” “But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?” His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”
41. Why did the woman’s second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her

Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot

49. Packed
(A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)

52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)

53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)

54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall.(D) No error (E)

55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required

58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t
yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

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Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Written Test Sample Questions

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions | Bank Clerk Written Test Sample Questions

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions

1. Which of the following can be said about the King’s subjects ?
1. They were all prosperous and could afford fine clothes.
2. They had lost confidence in the King’s ability to rule because he had grown old.
3. They often requested the King to marry and start a family.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. When the seed did not germinate after weeks’ efforts why did the farmer’s son change the soil ?
(A) He was persevering by nature
(B) He spent his spare time gardening instead of playing
(C) He loved gardening but was no good at it
(D) He wasted his opportunity to be King
(E) He was the King’s favourite subject
Ans : (A)

3. Why did the King choose the farmer’s son as Gandhara’s future King ?
(A) The King realised that he had a good character and would make a worthy ruler
(B) He knew that he could easily manipulate the farmer’s son
(C) He felt sorry for the farmer’s son and wanted to give him an opportunity
(D) To reward his honesty in not asking his parents for help to grow the plant
(E) He was the one who pointed out the King’s mistake of distributing roasted seeds
Ans : (A)

4. Why did the King distribute seeds to the children of his Kingdom ?
(A) To share his love of gardening with them
(B) To make sure that the future ruler had respect for all living things
(C) It was a test to select the child most suited to be the next ruler
(D) To see if they were ambitious and competed fairly
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. Why did the children bring beautiful plants to the palace ?
(A) They wanted to gift them to the King for his garden
(B) It was a sign of affection for the King who was retiring
(C) Their parents had forced them to present flowers to the King
(D) To show the King they were more suited than the farmer’s son to rule
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. What excuse did the farmer’s son give for not being able to grow a plant successfully ?
(A) His father had refused to help him
(B) The soil and fertilizer he had used were not suitable
(C) He had shifted the seed while it was growing
(D) There was something wrong with the seed
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. What was worrying the King’s subjects ?
(A) The King was too old to bear the burden of running a kingdom
(B) The King devoted too much time to gardening
(C) The King was sick and could die at any time
(D) The King had no heir to the throne
(E) The King had selected a farmer’s son to be their King
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The King deliberately roasted the seeds as he did not want to give up his throne
(B) The King regarded honesty as an important trait for a ruler
(C) Only boys were given the opportunity to prove they were worthy to rule
(D) The King was angry that the farmer’s son had come empty handed
(E) The farmer knew why the seed given to his son would not grow
Ans : (B)

9. What made the King unhappy with the children ?
1. They had not realised that the seeds he had given them were roasted.
2. They had cheated by allowing their parents to grow their plants.
3. Since they had successfully grown plants he was forced to choose one of them as King.
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. How did the farmer deal with the fact that his son had not been able to grow anything ?
(A) Being a farmer he was ashamed that his son could not cultivate a healthy plant
(B) He was understanding, as it was impossible to grow a plant in three months
(C) He was disappointed because his son would not get the chance to be King
(D) He was sympathetic because his son had worked very hard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
11. Ignoring
(A) Unaware
(B) Delaying
(C) Disregarding
(D) Humiliating
(E) Lacking
Ans : (C)

12. Enveloped
(A) Surrounded
(B) Included
(C) Wrapped
(D) Closed
(E) Hid
Ans : (C)

13. Piled
(A) Handled
(B) Poured
(C) Utilised
(D) Provided
(E) Drowned
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
14. Content
(A) Pitying
(B) Miserable
(C) Sorrow
(D) Unlucky
(E) Unfortunate
Ans : (B)

15. Avid
(A) Unenthusiastic
(B) Efficient
(C) Boring
(D) Impartial
(E) Incompetent
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) When this boy was twelve years old he attended a party given by his parents.
(2) A boy was considered a dunce and his usual place in class was standing in a corner as punishment.
(3) The boy timidly quoted the rest of the poem and named the author.
(4) The guest, a famous writer, was delighted and said “You are a bright boy who will achieve a lot one
day”.
(5) This one word of encouragement changed the boy’s life—he went on to become a famous poet.
(6) One of the guests saw two lines of poetry underneath a painting and wanted to know who the poet was,
but no one knew.
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. It is impossible (A) to complete (B) the entire (C) project within the specified (D) time frame. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

22. The Government is certain (A) to amend (B) the law to prevail (C) the crisis. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

23. Except (A) for a few, the majority (B) of our staff has been recruited (C) locally. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. They patiently (A) explained (B) the procedure (C) for appling (D) for a loan to the villagers. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. One can succeed (A) in business unless (B) one is prepared (C) to take risks. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
26. Inspite of trying his best, Karthik delivered whatever he had promised.
(A) was unable to deliver what
(B) delivered none of
(C) could not deliver
(D) cannot deliver however
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. It was very hot last year that the roads used to be empty in the afternoon.
(A) being so hot
(B) was so hot
(C) had been very hot
(D) was much hotter
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

28. The salaries we pay our employees are equal the ones that commercial banks pay theirs.
(A) are equally like
(B) were a like
(C) is similar to
(D) are equivalent to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

29. To develop their problem solving skills trainees are encouraged to analyse situations and came to
its own solutions.
(A) come up with their
(B) came forward with their
(C) come down with its
(D) come with its
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

30. Overcoming obstacles in the course of her job giving her a lot of Self-confidence.
(A) is given her
(B) she has been given
(C) will give her
(D) by giving her
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. Rajiv is the best person (A) / to advise you since (B) / he faced plenty of difficulty (C) / while setting up his business. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

32. The University that (A) / I taught was (B) / located on the (C) / outskirts of the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. Most of my (A) / co-workers have been (B) / transferred to various (C) / neighbourly districts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

34. Though my father spent (A) / a lot of money on (B) / our education he refused to (C) / give us no pocket money. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. Often ideas and concepts (A) / are passed on from (B) / one generation to the next (C) / without being questioned. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

36. Funds that are collected (A) / in the morning has (B) / to be disbursed as (C) / new loans by afternoon. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

37. Your promotion depends (A) / on the number of (B) / projects your handling (C) / during the year. (D)
No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. Our team has spent (A) / the night entirely (B) / awake trying to decide (C) / what strategy to adopt.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. I have finally managed (A) / to convince my parents (B) / to allow myself (C) / to study abroad. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (C)

40. When he took a loan (A) / for the first time (B) / he was so nervous that (C) / he repay it early. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
One day my son called me after his exams. I could make out from his voice that he was …41… “The exam did not go so well. It was not that I did not know but I made a careless mistake.” I tried to …42… him saying, “Don’t worry, you will do better next time”. He was not pleased to hear my words. “You don’t realize how competitive it is here and how difficult it is to …43… anything.”
A few days later I got another call from him. “A …44… thing happened”, he said. “When I got my paper I saw that I had …45… marks for the question I had answered incorrectly. My friends …46… me to keep quiet as the Professor must have made a mistake. But you taught me the value of honesty so I emailed him saying I did not …47… the marks.” His reply was more surprising. “It was …48,” he said. “My interaction with you throughout the year …49… me that you knew how to solve the problem. That is the reason I gave you those marks.” I was happier about my son’s …50… than his marks.
41. (A) Bother
(B) Sad
(C) Unwell
(D) Distress
(E) Confused
Ans : (B)

42. (A) Pity
(B) Forgive
(C) Console
(D) Cheer
(E) Sympathise
Ans : (C)

43. (A) Strive
(B) Triumph
(C) Succeed
(D) Want
(E) Achieve
Ans : (E)

44. (A) Thrilled
(B) Routine
(C) Disastrous
(D) Funny
(E) Different
Ans : (D)

45. (A) Assigned
(B) Awarded
(C) Obtain
(D) Received
(E) Given
Ans : (E)

46. (A) Suggested
(B) Advised
(C) Warn
(D) Made
(E) Recommended
Ans : (B)

47. (A) Deserve
(B) Qualify
(C) Need
(D) Receive
(E) Justify
Ans : (A)

48. (A) Knowing
(B) Mistaken
(C) Oversight
(D) Deliberate
(E) Intend
Ans : (D)

49. (A) Persuade
(B) Merited
(C) Convinced
(D) Proved
(E) Informed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) Value
(B) Moral
(C) Truth
(D) Honesty
(E) Potential
Ans : (D)

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TISS Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers | Tata Institute of Social Sciences PG Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers

TISS Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers | Tata Institute of Social Sciences Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers

SECTION – A
Marks: 15
ANALYTICAL AND NUMERICAL ABILITY
1. In the set of 5 figures below which four are of the same type?

A) D, E, B, A (B) C, B, A, E
(C) A, D, C, E (D) B, C, A, D
2. Below is a series, which of the options provided will continue the series?

3. Which pattern can be folded to make the cube shown in the figure below?

4. Monu was cooking on a gas stove.His cylinder exhausted at the end of the 7th minute, and he finished cooking in the 18th minute by shifting to a kersone stove immediately. He can finish cooking in 14 minutes on a gas stove. How much time will he take to cook on a kerosene stove?
(A) 20 minutes (B) 14 minutes
(C) 16 minutes (D) 22 minutes
5. A container of mixed juice contains 1/3rd of orange juice, 20 ml of water and 40 ml of sweet lime (Mausambi) juice. What is the total volume of the mixed juice?
(A) 120ml (B) 90ml
(C) 80ml (D) 150ml
6. An article brings half the cost price as profit. What is its selling price?
(A) 2 times the profit (B) 4 times the profit
(C) 3 times the profit (D) Cannot be found
7. A 2 digit number when divided by 5 leaves a remainder 3. If the number is a prime number, what is the possible number?
(A) 18 (B) 33
(C) 73 (D) 93
8. The syllabus for Maths, Chemistry and Physics exams include 12, 13 and 12 chapters respectively. The Chemistry syllabus was reduced so that the average chapters per subject was 12. By how many chapters was the Chemistry syllabus reduced?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
9. ABCD is a parallelogram with one of its angles equal to 900. Its diagonal is 10cm and one of its sides is equal to 8cm. What is the length of the other side in this parallelogram?
(A) 6 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 4 cm (D) 10 cm
10. Choose the option that logically continues the series
30. 37, 49, 73, 109, ____
(A) 157 (B) 133
(C) 121 (D) 145
11. Below are two statements are followed by two possible inferences. Choose the correct option.
Statements: All students stay in the hostel. Some of the students are intelligent. So,
Inferences: A Every student is intelligent.
B All the intelligent students stay in the hostel.
(A) Only inference A follows (B) Only inference B follows
(C) Both inference A and B follow (D) Neither inference A nor B follows
For Questions 12-15: Two friends A and M, working in a company, get an equal salary
of Rs 20,000 per month. Given below is the salary utilisation of both A and M in a
month.

12. What percentage of their salary do A and M spend on electricity respectively?
(A) 5% & 25 % (B) 15% & 20%
(C) 20% & 15% (D) 25% & 15%
13. By what percentage are A’s savings less than that of M?
(A) 25% B) 66.66%
(C) 40% (D) 20%
14. M cuts down the shopping expenses to zero for a particular month and saves that money. What will be the percentage savings of M for that particular month?
(A) 20% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 40%
15. A reduces transportation expenditure to Rs. 2000 to save money. Which of the following must hold TRUE?
(A) The percentage decrease in transportation expenditure of A is 25%.
(B) A’s salary has been reduced to Rs. 18000.
(C) A’s savings now become equal to M’s savings.
(D) A has sold the car.
SECTION – B
Marks: 15
Marks: 20
LANGUAGE ABILITY
For Questions 16-20: Please read the passage below and answer the questions that follow Towards the end of the 17th century, the British East India Company exported Indian fabrics to other countries. According to a French traveller of the 17th century, “the Indian cotton fabrics clothed everyone – from Cape of Good Hope to China, man and woman, from head to foot”. Before the introduction of mechanised spinning in the early 19th century, all Indian cottons and silks were only hand woven. Preserved in museums around the world, are samples of Indian handmade fabrics, including that found in the ruins of Mohenjodaro. But many expressions of this traditional skill – Sambalpuri of Orissa, Jamdhani of West Bengal, Leheria of Gujarat, Paithan of Maharashtra, Ikkat of Andhra Pradesh and the triple-ply silks of Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu) – are vibrantly alive today. Though every state is home to a range of unique fabrics in hundreds of designs, colours and textures, Indian fabrics constitute less than 2 per cent of the world textile trade.
16. The Indian fabrics referred to in the passage are …
(A) All hand woven / hand made
(B) Usually made of silk and cotton
(C) All of antique value
(D) All of the above
17. The expression ‘fabrics clothed everyone … from head to toe’ appears in the passage. This refers to …
(A) Clothes which fit well.
(B) A cloth that can completely cover a person’s body
(C) Clothing made for all parts of the body.
(D) None of the above.
18. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
(A) India, even today, makes hand woven fabrics.
(B) India stopped making hand woven fabrics in the early19th century.
(C) Kancheepuram is famous for Leheria fabrics.
(D) French travellers exported Indian fabrics in the 17th century
19. From the passage one can infer that…
(A) In the 17th century, a lot of French people visited India.
(B) At some point in history, Indian fabrics were popular across the world.
(C) Indian fabrics have not been able to keep up with the changes in international
fashion.
(D) If not for the British, Indian fabrics would never have been exported to other
countries.
20. According to the author, which of the following is a reason for the low percentage
contribution of Indian fabrics to world textile trade?
(A) Indian fabrics do not have much variety in terms of colour and texture.
(B) Indian fabrics are mostly handmade and hence not up to international standards.
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
For Questions 21 and 22: Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blank in the
sentences:
21. I have ______________ her name for the post.
(A) recommended (B) commended
(C) demonstrated (D) distressed
22. Due to delayed monsoons, prices of vegetables have risen ________. This has made
certain vegetables unaffordable to the common man.
(A) immediately (B) exponentially
(C) eventfully (D) simultaneously
23. Choose the option so that each pair of words is related in the similar manner.
Poem : Sculpture :: Pen : _____
(A) Chisel (B) Tool
(C) Sculptor (D) Rock
For Questions 24 and 25: Choose the most appropriate option of two words, to fill the
two blanks in the sentences.
24. She received a standing ______ for her _____ performance.
(A) ovation … dull (B) claps … immense
(C) provocation … deliberate (D) ovation … enchanting
25. I am ______ to ______ home.
(A) going … go (B) planning … rush
(C) seeing … buy (D) run … going
For Questions 26, 27 and 28: Choose the option that contains a grammatically incorrect sentence.
26. (A) Wild flowers often grow around the well near to the temple.
(B) Wild flowers often growing around the well near the temple.
(C) Wild flowers often growing around the well near to the temple.
(D) Wild flowers often grow around the well near the temple.
27. (A) Why he is talking rudely always?
(B) Why does he always talk rudely?
(C) Why does he always talk so rude?
(D) Why he is talking rudely always?
28. (A) Did you remember to take the keys?
(B) Did you remember taking the keys?
(C) Do you remembered taking the keys?
(D) Do you remember to take up the keys?
For Questions 29 and 30: Given are sets of sentences. They need to be arranged in a
sequence to form a coherent paragraph. Pick the option which gives the best sequence.
29. A Raag expresses the structure of the melody.
B Taal concerns itself with rhythm.
C There are more than 200 such Raags in Hindustani classical music.
D Raag and Taal are the fundamental elements of Hindustani classical music.
(A) ABCD (B) BADC
(C) DABC (D) DACB
30. A However, all of these have made the greatest impact in the last century.
B Throughout this expansion, new technologies have been integrated into the mainstream.
C Since its development, roughly 10,000 years ago, agriculture has expanded
vastly in geographical coverage and yield.
D Agricultural practices such as irrigation, crop rotation, fertilizers, and pesticides were also developed over the centuries.
(A) CDBA (B) DBAC
(C) CBDA (D) DBAC
For Questions 31 and 32: Choose the word that is different from the remaining words.
31. (A) Relation (B) Characteristic
(C) Trait (D) Attribute
32. (A) Sympathy (B) Empathy
(C) Apathy (D) Understanding
33. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the words/phrases that is highlighted in the sentence.
This shopkeeper goes an extra mile to ensure that customers get the benefits of all special schemes.
(A) does more than expected
(B) shies away from physical labour
(C) makes no effort
(D) None of the above
34. Read the paragraph and select the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph. The earliest forms of pottery discovered in the Indus valley date back to around 5000BC. These are similar to baskets in shape and most of the designs on these vessels are identical to woven motifs on earlier baskets. These decorative motifs were not just for ornamentation, but definitely had some ritual significance.
(A) Indus valley had designs similar to woven motifs on everything including its pottery and these had ritual significance.
(B) The pottery in the Indus valley had ritual significance.
(C) The earliest forms of pottery in the Indus valley had a basket shape and designs similar to woven motifs having ritual significance.
(D) Indus valley’s earliest pottery was made around 5000BC and was of basket shape which was of ritual significance.
35. Choose the option that best replaces the highlighted part in the sentence.
The budget for this project being low has become an issue for the director.
(A) The budget for this project being low (B) The project’s budget being low
(C) The project’s low budget (D) This low budget project

SECTION – C
Marks: 15
AWARENESS OF GENERAL AND SOCIAL ISSUES
36. Which of the following rivers is called the sorrow of Bihar?
(A) Gandaki (B) Kosi
(C) Bramhaputra (D) Mahananda
37. UNESCO is a United Nations agency. UNESCO stands for ________________.
(A) United Nations Environmental, Social and Cultural Organisation
(B) United Nations Ecological, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(C) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(D) United Nations Educational, Social and Cultural Organisation
38. Which of the following has never held the position of the Chief Justice of India?
(A) V. N. Khare (B) Y. K. Sabharwal
(C) R. C. Lahoti (D) R. S. Sarkaria
39. In his book, “On the origin of species”, Charles Darwin proposed that all species had evolved through a process of ______________.
(A) Divine creation (B) Coincidental breeding
(C) Natural selection (D) Natural diversification
40. A mammal named “Dolly” was the first mammal to be successfully cloned from an adult cell. Dolly was a _______.
(A) Lab mouse (B) Chimpanzee
(C) Orangutan (D) Sheep
41. Who out of the following, never visited the Indian subcontinent?
(A) Hsüan-tsang from China (B) Queen Victoria of United Kingdom
(C) Alexander the Great of Macedon (D) Ghengis Khan of Mongolia
42. As of the year 2009, which of the following words appear in the preamble to the Constitution of India?
(A) Empire (B) Socialist
(C) Welfare state (D) Both B and C
43. ______________ is the highest wind energy producing state in the country.
(A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) None of the above.
44. India Gate is located at _____________ while the Gateway of India is located at
________________.
(A) Mumbai, Agra (B) Mumbai, New Delhi
(C) New Delhi, Mumbai (D) New Delhi, Khyber Pass
45. India’s GDP growth during the financial year 2008-09 was ____________.
(A) 8.1% – 9% (B) 7.1% – 8%
(C) 6.1% – 7% (D) 5.1% – 6%
46. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is ____________.
(A) a programme for universalisation of educational content in all primary schools.
(B) a programme for ensuring that everyone irrespective of age or gender has access to education.
(C) a programme for universalisation of elementary education.
(D) Both A and C.
47. The 2016 Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in ____________.
(A) Chicago (B) Rio de Janeiro
(C) Madrid (D) Tokyo
48. What was the name of the organization founded and run by Mother Teresa?
(A) Sisters of Loreto (B) Sisters of Charity
(C) Loreto Convent (D) Missionaries of Charity
49. 28) Ramon Magsaysay – after whom the Magsaysay awards are named – belonged to _______________.
(A) United States of America (B) People’s Republic of China
(C) Republic of the Philippines (D) Republic of India
50. Which, out of the following civil services fall under the category of All India Services?
(A) Indian Administrative Service (B) Indian Police Service
(C) Indian Forest Service (D) All of the above

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